Multiple choice questions (單選題): 100%
1. Which of the following is the inhibitor for alternative purine synthesis? (A) guanine (B) hypoxanthine (C) aminopterin (D) thymidine
2. If the fifth carbon of the glucose is labeled with radioisotope, which of the following is not radioactive?
(A) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (B) dihydroxyacetone phosphate (C) pyruvate (D) phosphoenolpyruvate
3. Which of the following proceeds at the inner membrane of mitochondria? (A) succinate→fumarate (B) phosphoenolpyruvate→pyruvate (C) glucose-6-phosphate→glucose (D) none of the above
4. Continuing from the above question, how many ATP can the energy generated through this process be converted to through electron transport tand oxidative phosphorylation in mammalian cells?
(A) 0.5 ATP (B) 1.5 ATP (C) 2.5 ATP (D) 3.5 ATP
5. Continuing from the above question, the sequence for the electron transport chain will be：
(A) Complex I coenzyme Q complex III cytochrome c complex IV
(B) Complex II coenzyme Q complex III cytochrome c complex IV
(C) Complex III coenzyme Q complex II cytochrome c complex IV
(D) Complex IV coenzyme Q complex III cytochrome c complex I
6. The major difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acid catabolism is:
(A) cis-trans isomerization (B) cis-trans translocation (C) cis-trans dehydration (D) cis-trans hydration
7. Which of the following is the key compound for Edman degradation method? (A) agarose (B) polyacrylamide
8. Which molecule is involved in glycogen synthesis? (A) GTP (B) CTP (C) ATP (D) UTP
9. Which of the following can NOT pass through mitochondria? (A) Pyruvate (B) oxaloacetate (C) malate (D) citrate 10. Which reaction is mediated by GTP?
(A) pyruvate → oxaloacetate
(B) oxaloacetate → phosphoenolpyruvate (C) acetyl CoA → pyruvate
(D) malate → oxaloacetate
11. When the cell is in need for more energy, then:
(A) bypassing the sugar generation stage of pentose phosphate pathway (B) bypassing the oxidative stage of pentose phosphate pathway
(C) bypassing both the sugar generation and the oxidative stages of pentose phosphate pathway
(D) completing both the sugar generation and the oxidative stages of pentose phosphate pathway
12. Which of the following is CH3(CH2)4CH=CH(CH2)CH=CH(CH2)7COOH?
(A) 18:2 Δ9,10,12,13 (B) 18:2 Δ9,12 (C) 18:2 Δ6,7,9,10 (D) 18:2 Δ6,9 13. Na/K pump is to transport:
(A) Na outside of the cell & K inside of the cell (B) Na inside of the cell & K outside of the cell (C) both Na and K outside of the cell
(D) both Na and K inside of the cell 14. What is the bond between nucleotides?
(A) 5’ to 3’ phosphodiester bond (B) 3’ to 5’ phosphodiester bond (C) 5’ to 2’ phosphodiester bond (D) 2’ to 5’ phosphodiester bond 15. During DNA replication, which primer is required on one of the strand?
(A) RNA primer (B) DNA primer (C) both DNA and RNA primers (D) none of the above
16. Which of the characteristic does not belong to eukaryotic DNA replication? (A) semi-conservative (B) semi-discontinuous
(C) single origin of replication (D) 5’ to 3’ replication direction 17. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are formed on the:
(A) lagging strand (B) leading strand (C) template strand (D) coding strand 18. Which will be modulated by phosphorylation?
(A) Serine (B) Threonine (C) Tyrosine (D) All of the above
19. Which following phosphorylation is not coupled by ATP? (A) glucose → glucose-6-phosphate
(B) fructose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (C) glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate → 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (D) phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate
20. Which of the following is the precursor for purine biosynthesis? (A) Adenine (B) Hypoxanthine (C) Aminopterin (D) thymidine 21. Deamination of 5-methyl cytosine leads to:
(A) C to A transversion mutations (B) C to A transition mutations (C) G to A transversion mutations (D) G to A transition mutations 22. What is the major product for Glyoxylate cycle?
(A) Citrate (B) succinate (C) oxaloacetate (D) pyruvate 23. The isoelectric point of alanine is 6.0. If alanine is dissolved
in the pH 8.0 buffer and subjected to electrophoresis, it will: (A) not migrate to either anode or cathode
(B) migrate to the cathode (negative pole) (C) migrate to the anode
(D) some will migrate to the anode and some to the cathode 24. Continuing from the above question, this product is for:
(A) TCA cycle in bacteria (B) gluconeogenesis in animal (C) TCA cycle in animal (D) gluconeogenesis in plant
25. The mutant form of prions is the causative agent of Mad Cow Disease in human. The major difference between mutant prions and the normal prions is that:
(A) the mutant prions have a large percentage of α-helix whereas the normal prions have more β-sheets
(B) the normal prions have a large percentage of α-helix whereas the mutant prions have more β-sheets
(C) both the mutant prions and the normal prions have more β-sheets (D) both the mutant prions and the normal prions have a large percentage of
α-helix
26. enzyme kM (mol/L) kcat (s-1)
A 1.5X10-2 0.14
B 3.0X10-4 0.50
C 9.0X10-4 7.6 D 7.9X10-3 7.9X102
Which of the enzyme has higher substrate affinity? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
27. Gel filtration chromatography separates the molecules based on the: (A) specific binding (B) net charge
(C) size exclusion (D) precipitation
28. Which of the protease is involved in ubiquitin-dependent degradation pathway?
(A) cathepsin (B) lysosome (C) calpain (D) proteasome 29. Which is responsible for DNA replication in eukaryotic mitochondria?
(A) DNA polymerase α (B) DNA polymerase β (C) DNA polymerase γ (D) DNA polymerase δ 30. Which of the following are trans-acting elements?
(A) hormone responsive elements (B) enhancers (C) transcription factors (D) operon
31. Which subunit in RNA polymerase holoenzyme is responsible for the binding to the sense DNA?
32. Which are the two subunits for eukaryotic ribosome?
(A) 30S, 50S (B) 40S, 60S (C) 30S, 70S (D) 40S, 80S
33. The process of long chain fatty acid oxidation in liver is regulated in part by the interaction of:
(A) acetyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase I (B) acetyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase II (C) malonyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase I (D) malonyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase II
34. Which sequence is necessary for ribosome binding in prokaryote? (A) Kozak sequence (B) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
(C) Signal sequence (D) Okazaki sequence
35. Which of the following is not the product for pentose phosphate pathway? (A) NADPH (B) NADH (C) CO2 (D) sugar
36. Which of the following is not a DNA-binding domain? (A) Zn-finger (B) Cys-finger
(C) helix-turn-helix motif (D) basic region-leucine zipper
37. Which of the following is the key material for Sanger method to determine DNA sequence?
(A) NTPs (B) rNTPs (C) dNTPs (D)ddNTPs
38. Which of the characteristic does not belong to eukaryotic DNA replication? (A) semi-conservative (B) semi-discontinuous
(C) single origin of replication (D) 5’ to 3’ replication direction 39. Which of the following has higher Tm (transition temperature)?
(A) 5’ GTGCCTGCG 3’ (B) 5’ ATATCGTAT 3’ (C) 5’ CAGTAGATAC 3’ (D) 5’ CTAGGATGC 3’
40. The mRNA maturation from pre-mRNA in eukaryotes does not need to go through:
41. In the Cori cycle, the liver is primarily responsible for converting lactate from muscle into a substrate which is returned to muscle. This substrate is chiefly:
(A) acetyl CoA (B) glucose (C) alanine (D) pyruvate
42. Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase is responsible for mRNA synthesis? (A) RNA polymerase I (B) RNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase III (D) RNA polymerase IV
43. What will be the effect of a single base pair deletion in the middle of a DNA sequence coding for a certain protein?
(A) A protein with a single amino acid substitution in its center (B) The gene will not be transcribed and no protein will be produced (C) The amino half of the protein will have a normal sequence (D) The carboxyl half of the protein will have a normal sequence
44. NADPH necessary for de novo biosynthesis of fatty acids can be produced directly by action of:
(A) glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (B) mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase (C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (D) lactate dehydrogenase
45. To purify protein rich in Lysine residues, which of the following material should be used?
(A) dextran (B) triton X-100
(C) diethylaminoethyl cellulose (D) carboxymethyl cellulose 46. Cancer cells can proliferate indefinitely because they have high:
(A) polymerase activity (B) primase activity (C) telomerase activity (D) helicase activity
47. Which of the following fat-soluble vitamins is involved in blood clotting? (A) vitamin A (B) vitamin D (C) vitamin E (D) vitamin K
48. Glycolysis is only partially reversible because of energy barriers at the reactions catalyzed by:
(A) hexokinase, triose phosphate isomerase and pyruvate kinase (B) hexokinase, pyruvate dehydrogenase and phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase
(C) hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase
(D) hexokinase, glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase and pyruvate kinase
49. Which of the following is true about the difference between fatty acid degradation and biosynthesis?
(A) Fatty acid degradation is in cytosol while its biosynthesis is in mitochondria
(B) Fatty acid degradation starts at carboxyl end while its biosynthesis starts at methyl end
(C) The final product for fatty acid degradation is propinyl CoA while the final product for its biosynthesis is acetyl CoA
(D) The malonyl-CoA is involved in the fatty acid degradation, but the malonyl-CoA is not involved in its biosynthesis
50. Acetyl-CoA for de novo fatty acid biosynthesis is formed by the energy-dependent cleavage of:
(A) pyruvate (B) oxaloacetate (C) citrate (D) α-ketoglutarate
51. The acyl donor for cholesterol ester formation in blood is: (A) phosphatidylcholine (B) palmitoyl-CoA
(C) triglycerides (D) acyl carrier protein
52. Which of the following sequence is required for purification on the Nickel column?
(A) Lys tag (B) His tag (C) Gly tag (D) Met tag
53. When making the antibody, which region of the synthetic peptides should be used?
(A) Hydrocarbon region (B) Hydrophobic region (C) Hydrophilic region (D) Hydrolytic region
54. What is the major difference between genomic DNA and cDNA? (A) intron (B) exon (C) nucleotide (D) None of the above
55. The first dimensional separation in two-dimensional gel electrophoresis is to separate the molecule based on:
(A) the size (B) the net charge (C) the structure (D) the affinity 56. Which of the following is not a polysaccharide?
(A) Chitin (B) cellulose (C) pectin (D) lignin 57. Which reaction generates NADH in glycolysis?
(A) glucose → glucose-6-phosphate
(B) fructose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (C) glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate → 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (D) phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate
58. What is the first product during glycogen breakdown? (A) glucose-1-phosphate (B) glucose-6-phosphate (C) glucose (D) all of the above
59. How many net ATP is gained from glycolysis beginning with glycogen breakdown?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 60. The reactions in Cori cycle are:
(A) gluconeogenesis in liver & glycolysis in muscle (B) gluconeogenesis in muscle & glycolysis in liver (C) gluconeogenesis in adipose tissue & glycolysis in liver (D) gluconeogenesis in liver & glycolysis in adipose tissue 61. Ketone bodies will result in the decrease in blood acidity to:
(A) increase the affinity of hemoglobulin to O2
(B) decrease the affinity of hemoglobulin to O2
(C) average out the affinity of hemoglobulin to O2
62. Which of the following is the shuttle mechanism for metabolite transport between mitochondria and cytosol during glycolysis in muscle?
(A) glycerol-phosphate shuttle (B) pyruvate-oxaloacetate shuttle (C) citrate-succinate shuttle (D) malate-aspartate shuttle
63. Continuing from the above question, the purpose of the shuttle mechanism is to transport:
(A) ATP (B) NADH (C) NADPH (D) FADH2
64. Continuing from the above question, how many net ATPs will be generated after one glucose molecule was oxidized completely to CO2 and H2O in
muscle?
(A) 26 (B) 28 (C) 30 (D) 32 65. Generation of antibody diversity occurs in part as a result of
(A) alternative mRNA splicing (B) DNA recombination (C) transcriptional errors (D) translational errors
66. The kcat/kM [(mol/L)-1s-1] of enzyme X for substrate A, B, C, and D are 0.13,
0.036, 3000 and 100, respectively. Which substrate is best for enzyme X? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
67. What is the direction for DNA and RNA synthesis, respectively? (A) 5’ to 5’ and 5’ to 5’ (B) 5’ to 3’ and 5’ to 3’
(C) 5’ to 5’ and 5’ to 3’ (D) 5’ to 3’ and 5’ to 5’
68. Nucleic acids absorb ultraviolet light principally because of their aromatic base components. Which kind of nucleic acid below absorbs UV most efficiently?
(A) RNA in an A-form helix (B) RNA in a B-form helix (C) single-stranded DNA (D) double-stranded DNA
69. The partial structure of a polysaccharide is listed below. Which of the following glycosidic linkage is NOT shown in the molecule below?
(A) α-1,4-glycosidic linkage (B) α-1,6-glycosidic linkage (C) β-1,6-glycosidic linkage (D) None of the above
70. Three structures are listed below. Molecule A and B are:
(A) enatiomers (B) epimers
(C) mirror-image stereoisomers (D) none of the above
71. The figure shown below is a ball-and-stick representation of the crystal structure of a lipid (Note that the H atoms, which are often not evident in X-ray crystallography, are not shown). This lipid is:
(A) linolenic acid (B) palmitic acid
72. The structure of a dipeptide is shown below. Which bond indicates the peptide bond?
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) none of the above
73. The concept of "induced fit"for enzyme activity refers to the fact that: (A) enzyme-substrate binding induces movement along the reaction
coordinate to the transition state
(B) enzyme-substrate binding induces an increase in the reaction entropy, thereby catalyzing the reaction
(C) substrate binding may induce a conformational change in the enzyme, which then brings catalytic groups into proper orientation
(D) when a substrate binds to an enzyme, the enzyme induces a loss of water (desolvation) from the substrate
74. Several oxygen dissociation curves are listed in the figure below.
If curve #2 indicates the purified hemoglobulin in a solution containing physiological concentration of CO2 and BPG at pH 7.0, then which curve
should represent the oxygen dissociation curve when the pH increases? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
75. By adding SDS (sodium dodecyl sulfate) during the electrophoresis of proteins, it is possible to:
(A) measure an enzyme's specific activity
(B) preserve a protein's native structure and biological activity (C) determine a protein's isoelectric point
(D) separate proteins exclusively on the basis of molecular weight 76. After one hour of electrophoresis in an agarose gel at a field strength of 5
volts/cm, one DNA fragment migrated 10 cm while another DNA fragment migrated only 6 cm. From this information you can conclude:
(A) that the DNA that migrated 10 cm is larger than the DNA that migrated 6 cm
(B) that the DNA that migrated 10 cm is smaller than the DNA that migrated 6 cm
(C) nothing about the sizes of the DNA fragments without information about the migration of DNA size standards
(D) that the experiment failed
77. The structures of purine and pyrimidine are shown below. The N atom at the position 1 of a purine molecule comes from:
(A) glutamine (B) glycine (C) aspartate (D) tyrosine
78. Which lines are the inhibitor lines (with inhibitors) for Plot (1) and (2) below, respectively?
79. Kozak sequence (ACCAUGG) is the sequence involved in the identification of translational initiation site. Using the genetic code below, how many possible polypeptide chains will be produced from the nucleic acid sequence?
5’ -AUGCCAUGAUGUAGUACCAUGGGUAGGCAUGAAUGUG ACUGAUUUAAGUAACAUAAUAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA-3’ (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
80. Continuing from the above question, which of the following is not included in any possible polypeptide chain?
(A) Glycine (B) Cysteine (C) Valine (D) Lysine
The Genetic Code
First Position Second Position Third Position 5' end U C A G 3' end
U
Phe Ser Tyr Cys U Phe Ser Tyr Cys C Leu Ser STOP STOP A Leu Ser SeCys; STOP Trp G
C
Leu Pro His Arg U Leu Pro His Arg C Leu Pro Gln Arg A Leu Pro Gln Arg G
A
Ile Thr Asn Ser U Ile Thr Asn Ser C Ile Thr Lys Arg A Met Thr Lys Arg G
G
Val Ala Asp Gly U Val Ala Asp Gly C Val Ala Glu Gly A Val Ala Glu Gly G
