• 沒有找到結果。

A linear functional on V is a linear map f : V → F

N/A
N/A
Protected

Academic year: 2022

Share "A linear functional on V is a linear map f : V → F"

Copied!
1
0
0

加載中.... (立即查看全文)

全文

(1)

1. Dual Space

Let V be a vector space over a field F. A linear functional on V is a linear map f : V → F.

The set of all linear functions on V is denoted by V. By definition, V= L(V, F ). The set L(V, F ) is also a vector space over F.

We assume that V is an n dimensional vector space over F.

Let β = {v1, · · · , vn} be a basis for V. For each v ∈ V, there exist unique numbers a1, · · · , an ∈ F such that v = a1v1+ · · · + anvn. For each 1 ≤ i ≤ n, we define fi(v) = ai. Then fi: V → F defines a linear functional on V for each 1 ≤ i ≤ n.

Definition 1.1. The ordered set β = {f1, · · · , fn} is called the set of coordinate functions on V with respect to the basis β.

It follows from the definition that fi(vj) = δij for 1 ≤ i, j ≤ n.

Theorem 1.1. The set β forms an ordered basis for V such that for any f ∈ V,

(1.1) f =

n

X

i=1

f (vi)fi.

Proof. Let us prove that β is linearly independent over F. Suppose a1f1+ · · · + anfn= 0.

By fi(vj) = δij, for each 1 ≤ j ≤ n, one has

(a1f1+ · · · + anfn)(vj) = a1f1(vj) + · · · + anfn(vj) = aj = 0.

Now let us prove that β and (1.1) at the same time.

Let f be given. Define g : V → F by g(v) =Pn

i=1f (vi)fi(v). Then g ∈ V. Furthermore, for each 1 ≤ j ≤ n,

g(vj) =

n

X

i=1

f (vi)fi(vj) =

n

X

i=1

f (viij = f (vj).

We see that the two linear functionals f and g coincide on β. Sine f, g are linear, f = g on V. We find that f ∈ span β and f has the representation of the form (1.1).  Definition 1.2. The ordered basis β is called the dual basis to β.

Corollary 1.1. dimFV = dimFV.

Theorem 1.2. Let V∗∗ be the dual space to V. For each v ∈ V, we define bv : V → F by sending f to f (v). Then

(1) bv : V → F is a linear map;

(2) the function ϕ : V → V∗∗ sending v tov is a linear isomorphism.b Proof. We leave it to the reader to check thatv is a linear map.b

Let us show that ker ϕ = {0}. Let v ∈ ker ϕ. Then ϕ(v) = 0. Hence bv(f ) = 0 for any f ∈ V. Write v = a1v1+ · · · + anvn for some a1, · · · , an∈ F. Since f (v) = 0 for all v ∈ V, fi(v) = 0 for all 1 ≤ i ≤ n which implies that ai = fi(v) = 0 for all 1 ≤ i ≤ n. We see that v = 0. Since V∗∗ is the dual basis to V and V is the dual basis to V, by Corollary 1.1,

dimFV∗∗= dimFV = dimF V.

Since ϕ : V → V∗∗ is a linear monomorphism (linear and injective) with dimFV =

dimF V∗∗, ϕ is a linear isomorphism. 

1

參考文獻

相關文件

[r]

By the Lebesgue’s theorem we know that if f is (Riemann) integrable on A, then the discontinuities of f

(Use the property of

The proof is similar to that

• The second optional step, called page translation, converts a linear address to a physical address. Converting Logical to

Lecture 1: Continuous family of topological vector spaces Let k be the field of real numbers R or the field of complex numbers C1.

 An orientation of V is a choice of an equivalence class; A finite dimensional real vector space together with an orientation is called an oriented vector space.. A basis is said to

[r]