-cXS6MnYExU
愛因斯坦的狹義相 對論與牛頓力學的 關係也可以用泰勒 級 數 的 方 法 理 解: 愛因斯坦理論在微 觀尺度下與牛頓力 學相當。
Example 4(page 778). In Einstein’s theory of special relativity the mass of an object moving with velocity v is
m = m0 q
1 −vc22
,
where m0 is the mass of the object when at rest and c is the speed of light. The kinetic energy of the object is the difference between its total energy and its energy at rest: K = mc2−m0c2. (a) Show that when v is very small compared with c, this expression for K agrees with
classical Newtonian physics: K = 12m0v2.
(b) Use Taylor’s Inequality to estimate the difference in these expressions for K when
|v| ≤ 100 m/s.
Solution.
(a) Using the expressions given for K and m, we get
K = mc2− m0c2 = m0c2 q
1 −vc22
− m0c2 = m0c2
1 − v2
c2
−12
− 1
! .
With x = −vc22, the Maclaurin series for (1 + x)−12 is a binomial series with m = −12. Therefore we have
(1 + x)−12 = 1 −1
2x + −12
−32
2! x2+ −12
−32
−52
3! x3+ · · ·
= 1 −1 2x +3
8x2− 5
16x3+ · · · , and
K = m0c2
1 +1 2
v2 c2 +3
8 v4 c4 + 5
16 v6 c6 + · · ·
− 1
= m0c2 1 2
v2 c2 +3
8 v4 c4 + 5
16 v6 c6 + · · ·
. If v is much smaller than c, then all terms after the first are very small when compared with the first term. If we omit them, we get
K = m0c2 1 2
v2 c2
= 1 2m0v2.
(b) Let f (x) = m0c2
(1 + x)−12 − 1
with x = −vc22. We can use Taylor’s Inequality to write
r1(x) = f′′(˜c)
2! x2, where −v2
c2 ≤ ˜c ≤ 0.
40 11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE
Since f′′(x) = 34m0c2(1 + x)−52 and we are given that |v| ≤ 100 m/s, so
|f′′(˜c)| = 3m0c2
4 (1 + ˜c)52 ≤ 3m0c2 4 1 −100c22
52. Thus, with c = 3 · 108m/s,
|r1(x)| = 1
2 · 3m0c2
4 1 −100c2252 ·1004
c4 < (4.17 · 10−10)m0.
So when |v| ≤ 100 m/s, the magnitude of the error in using the Newtonian expression for kinetic energy is at most (4.17 · 10−10)m0.
Appendix
tnkfRwtE4UI
這個例子在數學上 的發展很重要, 這 個函數的建構告知 其泰勒級數與原函 數除了中心以外都 不相等。 由(a)到 (d)的討論知道這 個函數的馬克勞林 級數是恆為零的函 數。 既然如此, 則 不論n為何,餘項 和原函數一樣, 所 以餘項在非中心點 的地方不可能趨近 於零。
Example 5. Consider the function f (x) =
( e−x21 if x 6= 0 0 if x = 0 . (a) The function f (x) is continuous on R because
x→0lime−x21 = lim
y→±∞e−y2 = lim
y→±∞
1
ey2 = 0 = f (0),
and for x 6= 0, f (x) is a composition of two continuous functions g(x) = ex and h(x) =
−x12, that is, f (x) = (g ◦ h)(x).
(b) We will show that: For x 6= 0, f(n)(x) = Pn(y)e−y2, where y = 1x, and Pn(y) is a poly-nomial of y with degree 3n.
(1) When n = 1, we compute f′(x) = df
dx = df dy
dy
dx = e−y2(−2y) · (−y2) = 2y3e−y2 = P1(y)e−y2, where P1(y) = 2y3 is a polynomial of y with degree 3.
(2) Assume that it is true for n = k, that is, f(k)(x) = ddxkfk = Pk(y)e−y2, where Pk(y) is a polynomial with degree 3k.
(3) When n = k + 1, we compute f(k+1)(x) = dk+1f
dxk+1 = d dx
dkf dxk = d
dy
dkf dxk
dy dx = d
dy
Pk(y)e−y2 (−y2)
= dPk(y)
dy e−y2+ Pk(y)e−y2(−2y)
(−y2)
=
−y2dPk(y)
dy + 2y3Pk(y)
e−y2.
Let Pk+1(y) = −y2 dPdyk(y) + 2y3Pk(y), which is a polynomial of y with degree 3 + 3k = 3(k + 1).
11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE 41
(4) By mathematical induction, we know that for x 6= 0, f(n)(x) = Pn(y)e−y2, where y = 1x, and Pn(y) is a polynomial of y with degree 3n.
(c) Now, we will show that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N.
(1) When n = 1, we compute
f′(0) = lim
x→0
f (x) − f (0) x − 0 = lim
x→0
e−x21
x = lim
y→±∞
e−y2
1 y
= lim
y→±∞
y ey2
(∞∞),L′
=== lim
y→±∞
1
2yey2 = 0.
(2) Assume that it is true for n = k, that is, f(k)(0) = 0.
(3) When n = k + 1, we compute f(k+1)(0) = lim
x→0
f(k)(x) − f(k)(0)
x − 0 = lim
x→0
f(k)(x)
x = lim
y→±∞
Pk(y)e−y2
1 y
= lim
y→±∞
yPk(y) ey2 = 0.
Remark that we can apply l’ Hospital Rule3n−1
2 times to get the limit is 0.
(4) By mathematical induction, we know that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N.
(d) Since f (0) = 0 and f(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N, the Maclaurin series of f (x) is
M (x) =
∞
X
n=0
f(n)(0)
n! xn= f (0) + f′(0)
1! x +f′′(0)
2! x2+ · · · +f(n)(0)
n! xn+ · · · = 0.
This is a zero function, so the interval of convergence of M (x) is R. We compute the remainder
rn(x) = f (x) − Tn(x) = f (x).
We get for any x 6= 0, lim
n→∞rn(x) = e−x21 6= 0. Therefore, f (x) is not equal to its Maclaurin series.
這裡引進集合符號 Ck(R),表示k次 求導之後仍連續的 函 數 所 成之集 合。
而 C∞(R) 的元 素是不論微分幾次 函數都連續。 至於 能夠用泰勒級數重 新表示的函數稱為 解析函數, 集合以 Cω(R)表示。
(e) For any integer k ≥ 0, let Ck(R) be the set (in fact, it is a vector space) consisting of all functions f (x) that the derivatives f′(x), f′′(x), . . . , f(k)(x) exist and are continuous on R. So C0(R), which is also denoted by C(R), consists of all continuous functions on R, and C∞(R) = ∩∞k=0Ck(Ω) consists of all smooth functions (continuous derivatives of all orders) on R (光滑函數).
Denote Cω(R) be the set consisting of all smooth functions f (x) that for all x ∈ R, there exists R > 0 such that f (x) equals its Taylor series expansion on (x − R, x + R).
We say a function f (x) ∈ Cω(R) is analytic (解析函數).
42 11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE
(f) The above discussion shows that the function f (x) is a smooth function, but not an analytic function because f (x) is not analytic at x = 0. So the conclusion is Cω(R) ( C∞(R).
這個例子告知: 存 在光滑函數並非解 析函數。
Remark that we have the following relations:
Cω(R) ( C∞(R) · · · ( C2(R) ( C1(R) ( C0(R).
Example 6. Recall that the binomial series is
∞
We will check the convergence of the binomial series at the endpoints.
(a) If m ≤ −1, then
n! is an alternating series. We compute
|Cnm| = so it is a decreasing sequence. Next, we calculate
|Cnm| =
11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE 43
By the Alternating Series Test, P∞
n=0
(c) Before we check the case m > 0, we introduce the Raabe’s Test:
The Raabe’s Test. Suppose a series P∞
n=1
an satisfies
n→∞lim then the series is absolutely convergent.
Remark that the p-series P∞
n=1 1
np satisfies the condition, so the Raabe’s Test is a Com-parison Test with p-series.
If m > 0, then
44 11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE
Example 7. We will prove (1 + x)m= P∞
n=0
Cnmxn on |x| < 1.
6z2Aklf5O60
這裡提供二項式函 數及其泰勒級數的 相等之證明。 注意 到這邊不是透過驗 證餘項趨近於零的 方式, 而是用微分 方程的方法處理。
(a) Let g(x) = P∞
n=0
Cnmxn on the interval of convergence (−1, 1). We will show that (1 + x)g′(x) = mg(x) on the interval of convergence (−1, 1).
We compute g′(x) = P∞
n=1
Cnmnxn−1 on the interval of convergence (−1, 1), and
(1 + x)g′(x) = (1 + x) X∞ n=1
Cnmnxn−1= X∞ n=1
Cnmnxn−1+ X∞ n=1
Cnmnxn
=
∞
X
n=0
Cn+1m (n + 1)xn+
∞
X
n=0
Cnmnxn
= X∞ n=0
m(m − 1)(m − 2) · · · (m − n + 1)(m − n)(n + 1)
(n + 1)! xn
+
∞
X
n=0
m(m − 1)(m − 2) · · · (m − n + 1)n
n! xn
= X∞ n=0
m(m − 1)(m − 2) · · · (m − n + 1)((m − n) + n)
n! xn
= m
∞
X
n=0
Cnmxn= mg(x).
(b) Solve the differential equation (1 + x)g′(x) = mg(x), g(0) = 1, |x| < 1. It is separable equation, so we have
g′(x)
g(x) = m
1 + x ⇒ d
dx(ln g(x)) = m
1 + x ⇒ ln g(x) = m ln(1 + x) + C.
Since g(0) = 1, we know that C = 0. Hence ln g(x) = m ln(1 + x) = ln(1 + x)m and it implies g(x) = P∞
n=0
Cnmxn= (1 + x)m on |x| < 1.