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Applications to Physics, page 778

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愛因斯坦的狹義相 對論與牛頓力學的 關係也可以用泰勒 級 數 的 方 法 理 解: 愛因斯坦理論在微 觀尺度下與牛頓力 學相當。

Example 4(page 778). In Einstein’s theory of special relativity the mass of an object moving with velocity v is

m = m0 q

1 −vc22

,

where m0 is the mass of the object when at rest and c is the speed of light. The kinetic energy of the object is the difference between its total energy and its energy at rest: K = mc2−m0c2. (a) Show that when v is very small compared with c, this expression for K agrees with

classical Newtonian physics: K = 12m0v2.

(b) Use Taylor’s Inequality to estimate the difference in these expressions for K when

|v| ≤ 100 m/s.

Solution.

(a) Using the expressions given for K and m, we get

K = mc2− m0c2 = m0c2 q

1 −vc22

− m0c2 = m0c2

 1 − v2

c2

12

− 1

! .

With x = −vc22, the Maclaurin series for (1 + x)12 is a binomial series with m = −12. Therefore we have

(1 + x)12 = 1 −1

2x + −12

32

2! x2+ −12

32

52

3! x3+ · · ·

= 1 −1 2x +3

8x2− 5

16x3+ · · · , and

K = m0c2



1 +1 2

v2 c2 +3

8 v4 c4 + 5

16 v6 c6 + · · ·



− 1



= m0c2 1 2

v2 c2 +3

8 v4 c4 + 5

16 v6 c6 + · · ·

 . If v is much smaller than c, then all terms after the first are very small when compared with the first term. If we omit them, we get

K = m0c2 1 2

v2 c2



= 1 2m0v2.

(b) Let f (x) = m0c2

(1 + x)12 − 1

with x = −vc22. We can use Taylor’s Inequality to write

r1(x) = f′′(˜c)

2! x2, where −v2

c2 ≤ ˜c ≤ 0.

40 11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE

Since f′′(x) = 34m0c2(1 + x)52 and we are given that |v| ≤ 100 m/s, so

|f′′(˜c)| = 3m0c2

4 (1 + ˜c)52 ≤ 3m0c2 4 1 −100c22

52. Thus, with c = 3 · 108m/s,

|r1(x)| = 1

2 · 3m0c2

4 1 −100c2252 ·1004

c4 < (4.17 · 10−10)m0.

So when |v| ≤ 100 m/s, the magnitude of the error in using the Newtonian expression for kinetic energy is at most (4.17 · 10−10)m0.

Appendix

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這個例子在數學上 的發展很重要, 這 個函數的建構告知 其泰勒級數與原函 數除了中心以外都 不相等。 由(a)(d)的討論知道這 個函數的馬克勞林 級數是恆為零的函 數。 既然如此, 則 不論n為何,餘項 和原函數一樣, 所 以餘項在非中心點 的地方不可能趨近 於零。

Example 5. Consider the function f (x) =

( ex21 if x 6= 0 0 if x = 0 . (a) The function f (x) is continuous on R because

x→0limex21 = lim

y→±∞e−y2 = lim

y→±∞

1

ey2 = 0 = f (0),

and for x 6= 0, f (x) is a composition of two continuous functions g(x) = ex and h(x) =

x12, that is, f (x) = (g ◦ h)(x).

(b) We will show that: For x 6= 0, f(n)(x) = Pn(y)e−y2, where y = 1x, and Pn(y) is a poly-nomial of y with degree 3n.

(1) When n = 1, we compute f(x) = df

dx = df dy

dy

dx = e−y2(−2y) · (−y2) = 2y3e−y2 = P1(y)e−y2, where P1(y) = 2y3 is a polynomial of y with degree 3.

(2) Assume that it is true for n = k, that is, f(k)(x) = ddxkfk = Pk(y)e−y2, where Pk(y) is a polynomial with degree 3k.

(3) When n = k + 1, we compute f(k+1)(x) = dk+1f

dxk+1 = d dx

dkf dxk = d

dy

 dkf dxk

 dy dx = d

dy



Pk(y)e−y2 (−y2)

= dPk(y)

dy e−y2+ Pk(y)e−y2(−2y)

 (−y2)

=



−y2dPk(y)

dy + 2y3Pk(y)

 e−y2.

Let Pk+1(y) = −y2 dPdyk(y) + 2y3Pk(y), which is a polynomial of y with degree 3 + 3k = 3(k + 1).

11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE 41

(4) By mathematical induction, we know that for x 6= 0, f(n)(x) = Pn(y)e−y2, where y = 1x, and Pn(y) is a polynomial of y with degree 3n.

(c) Now, we will show that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N.

(1) When n = 1, we compute

f(0) = lim

x→0

f (x) − f (0) x − 0 = lim

x→0

ex21

x = lim

y→±∞

e−y2

1 y

= lim

y→±∞

y ey2

(),L

=== lim

y→±∞

1

2yey2 = 0.

(2) Assume that it is true for n = k, that is, f(k)(0) = 0.

(3) When n = k + 1, we compute f(k+1)(0) = lim

x→0

f(k)(x) − f(k)(0)

x − 0 = lim

x→0

f(k)(x)

x = lim

y→±∞

Pk(y)e−y2

1 y

= lim

y→±∞

yPk(y) ey2 = 0.

Remark that we can apply l’ Hospital Rule3n−1

2  times to get the limit is 0.

(4) By mathematical induction, we know that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N.

(d) Since f (0) = 0 and f(n)(0) = 0 for all n ∈ N, the Maclaurin series of f (x) is

M (x) =

X

n=0

f(n)(0)

n! xn= f (0) + f(0)

1! x +f′′(0)

2! x2+ · · · +f(n)(0)

n! xn+ · · · = 0.

This is a zero function, so the interval of convergence of M (x) is R. We compute the remainder

rn(x) = f (x) − Tn(x) = f (x).

We get for any x 6= 0, lim

n→∞rn(x) = ex21 6= 0. Therefore, f (x) is not equal to its Maclaurin series.

這裡引進集合符號 Ck(R),表示k次 求導之後仍連續的 函 數 所 成之集 合。

C(R) 的元 素是不論微分幾次 函數都連續。 至於 能夠用泰勒級數重 新表示的函數稱為 解析函數, 集合以 Cω(R)表示。

(e) For any integer k ≥ 0, let Ck(R) be the set (in fact, it is a vector space) consisting of all functions f (x) that the derivatives f(x), f′′(x), . . . , f(k)(x) exist and are continuous on R. So C0(R), which is also denoted by C(R), consists of all continuous functions on R, and C(R) = ∩k=0Ck(Ω) consists of all smooth functions (continuous derivatives of all orders) on R (光滑函數).

Denote Cω(R) be the set consisting of all smooth functions f (x) that for all x ∈ R, there exists R > 0 such that f (x) equals its Taylor series expansion on (x − R, x + R).

We say a function f (x) ∈ Cω(R) is analytic (解析函數).

42 11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE

(f) The above discussion shows that the function f (x) is a smooth function, but not an analytic function because f (x) is not analytic at x = 0. So the conclusion is Cω(R) ( C(R).

這個例子告知: 存 在光滑函數並非解 析函數。

Remark that we have the following relations:

Cω(R) ( C(R) · · · ( C2(R) ( C1(R) ( C0(R).

Example 6. Recall that the binomial series is

We will check the convergence of the binomial series at the endpoints.

(a) If m ≤ −1, then

n! is an alternating series. We compute

|Cnm| = so it is a decreasing sequence. Next, we calculate

|Cnm| =

11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE 43

By the Alternating Series Test, P

n=0

(c) Before we check the case m > 0, we introduce the Raabe’s Test:

The Raabe’s Test. Suppose a series P

n=1

an satisfies

n→∞lim then the series is absolutely convergent.

Remark that the p-series P

n=1 1

np satisfies the condition, so the Raabe’s Test is a Com-parison Test with p-series.

If m > 0, then

44 11.11 Applications of Taylor Polynomials goo.gl/SbJNXE

Example 7. We will prove (1 + x)m= P

n=0

Cnmxn on |x| < 1.

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這裡提供二項式函 數及其泰勒級數的 相等之證明。 注意 到這邊不是透過驗 證餘項趨近於零的 方式, 而是用微分 方程的方法處理。

(a) Let g(x) = P

n=0

Cnmxn on the interval of convergence (−1, 1). We will show that (1 + x)g(x) = mg(x) on the interval of convergence (−1, 1).

We compute g(x) = P

n=1

Cnmnxn−1 on the interval of convergence (−1, 1), and

(1 + x)g(x) = (1 + x) X n=1

Cnmnxn−1= X n=1

Cnmnxn−1+ X n=1

Cnmnxn

=

X

n=0

Cn+1m (n + 1)xn+

X

n=0

Cnmnxn

= X n=0

m(m − 1)(m − 2) · · · (m − n + 1)(m − n)(n + 1)

(n + 1)! xn

+

X

n=0

m(m − 1)(m − 2) · · · (m − n + 1)n

n! xn

= X n=0

m(m − 1)(m − 2) · · · (m − n + 1)((m − n) + n)

n! xn

= m

X

n=0

Cnmxn= mg(x).

(b) Solve the differential equation (1 + x)g(x) = mg(x), g(0) = 1, |x| < 1. It is separable equation, so we have

g(x)

g(x) = m

1 + x ⇒ d

dx(ln g(x)) = m

1 + x ⇒ ln g(x) = m ln(1 + x) + C.

Since g(0) = 1, we know that C = 0. Hence ln g(x) = m ln(1 + x) = ln(1 + x)m and it implies g(x) = P

n=0

Cnmxn= (1 + x)m on |x| < 1.

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