1. Exponential Function
In this note, we are going to solve the following differential equation
(1.1) d
dxy = y, y(0) = 1.
Let us introduce an infinite series
y = a0+ a1x + a2x2+ · · · =
∞
X
n=0
anxn. Assume that we can differentiate y with respect to x:
d
dxy = a1+ 2a2x + 3a3x2+ · · · =
∞
X
n=0
(n + 1)an+1xn. Using (1.1), we obtain that a1= a0, a2 = a1/2, a3= a2/3 and so forth:
(1.2) an= 1
nan−1, n ≥ 1.
Using y(0) = 1, we have a0 = 1.
Lemma 1.1. If (an) is a sequence of numbers obeying (1.2) with a0= 1, then
(1.3) an= 1
n! n ≥ 0.
Proof. We know that a0 = 1, and hence (1.3) holds for n = 0. Assume that (1.3) holds for n = k, i.e. ak= 1/k!. Then
ak+1= ak
k + 1 = 1 k + 1 · 1
k! = 1 (k + 1)!.
Hence (1.3) holds for n = k + 1. By Mathematical induction, (1.3) holds for all n ≥ 0. Hence given any x, we can define (formally) an infinite series:
(1.4)
∞
X
n=0
xn n!.
Lemma 1.2. For any x ∈ R, the infinite series (1.4) is absolutely convergent.
Proof. Let bn= xn/n!. Then bn+1
bn = xn+1 (n + 1)!
n!
xn = x n + 1. Then
n→∞lim
bn+1 bn
= 0 < 1.
By ratio test, the infinite series (1.4) is absolutely convergent (and hence convergent). Hence the assignment
x 7→
∞
X
n=0
xn n!
is a real-valued function. We denote this function by exp(x) or by ex.
1
2
Proposition 1.1. For any x, y ∈ R, we have
(1.5) exp(x + y) = exp(x) exp(y).
Proof. We know
exp(x + y) =
∞
X
n=0
(x + y)n n! . Using Binomial theorem,
(x + y)n=
n
X
k=0
n k
xkyn−k. By definition,
n k
= n!
k!(n − k)!. Hence we obtain
∞
X
n=0
(x + y)n
n! =
∞
X
n=0 n
X
k=0
1 n!
n k
xkyn−k
=
∞
X
n=0 n
X
k=0
1 n!
n!
k!(n − k)!xkyn−k
=
∞
X
n=0 n
X
k=0
1
k!(n − k)!xkyn−k
=
∞
X
n=0 n
X
k=0
xk k!
yn−k (n − k)!. Let j = n − k, we obtain
∞
X
n=0 n
X
k=0
xk k!
yn−k (n − k)! =
∞
X
n=0
X
k+j=n
xk k!
yj
j! = exp(x) exp(y).
We conclude that (1.5) holds for any x, y ∈ R.
Now, we need to check that y = exp(x) is indeed the solution to (1.1) and at first, we need to show that the function is differentiable at all x ∈ R. To do this, we compute the difference quotient: using Proposition 1.1, we have
exp(x + h) − exp(x)
h = exp(x) exp(h) − exp(x)
h = exp(x)exp(h) − 1
h .
To show lim
h→∞
exp(x + h) − exp(x)
h exists, we only need to show that lim
h→∞
exp(h) − 1
h exists.
By definition,
exp(h) = 1 + h 1!+h2
2! + · · · , we see that
exp(h) − 1
h = 1 + h
2! +h2
3! + · · · = 1 +
∞
X
n=1
hn (n + 1)!. Hence intuitively, we find
h→0lim
exp(h) − 1
h = 1.
3
Hence we find
d
dxexp(x) = lim
h→0
exp(x + h) − exp(x) h
= lim
h→0exp(x)exp(h) − 1 h
= exp(x) lim
h→0
exp(h) − 1 h
= exp(x).
In other words, y = exp(x) is differentiable at all x ∈ R and satisfies (1.1).