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Section 3.6 Derivatives of Logarithmic and Inverse Trigonometric Functions

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Section 3.6 Derivatives of Logarithmic and Inverse Trigonometric Functions

49. Use logarithmic differentiation to find the derivative of the function. y = xx Solution:

230 ¤ CHAPTER 3 DIFFERENTIATION RULES

43.  =  ⇒ ln  = ln  ⇒ ln  =  ln  ⇒ 0 = (1) + (ln ) · 1 ⇒ 0= (1 + ln ) ⇒

0= (1 + ln )

44.  = cos  ⇒ ln  = ln cos  ⇒ ln  = cos  ln  ⇒ 1

 0= cos  ·1

+ ln  · (− sin ) ⇒

0=  cos 

 − ln  sin 

⇒ 0= cos  cos 

 − ln  sin  45.  = sin  ⇒ ln  = ln sin  ⇒ ln  = sin  ln  ⇒ 0

 = (sin ) ·1

+ (ln )(cos ) ⇒

0= 

sin 

 + ln  cos 

⇒ 0= sin 

sin 

 + ln  cos 

46.  =√

⇒ ln  = ln√

⇒ ln  =  ln 12 ⇒ ln  = 12 ln  ⇒ 1

0= 1 2 ·1

+ ln  ·1

2 ⇒

0= 1

2+12ln 

⇒ 0=12

(1 + ln )

47.  = (cos ) ⇒ ln  = ln(cos ) ⇒ ln  =  ln cos  ⇒ 1

 0=  · 1

cos · (− sin ) + ln cos  · 1 ⇒

0= 

ln cos  − sin  cos 

⇒ 0= (cos )(ln cos  −  tan )

48.  = (sin )ln  ⇒ ln  = ln(sin )ln  ⇒ ln  = ln  · ln sin  ⇒ 1

0= ln  · 1

sin · cos  + ln sin  ·1

 ⇒

0= 

ln  ·cos 

sin  +ln sin 

⇒ 0= (sin )ln 

ln  cot  +ln sin 

49.  = (tan )1 ⇒ ln  = ln(tan )1 ⇒ ln  = 1

ln tan  ⇒ 1

0 = 1

· 1

tan · sec2 + ln tan  ·

−1

2

⇒ 0= 

sec2

 tan −ln tan 

2

0= (tan )1

sec2

 tan −ln tan 

2

or 0= (tan )1·1

csc  sec  −ln tan 

50.  = (ln )cos  ⇒ ln  = cos  ln(ln ) ⇒ 0

 = cos  · 1 ln · 1

+ (ln ln )(− sin ) ⇒

0= (ln )cos  cos 

 ln − sin  ln ln  51.  = ln(2+ 2) ⇒ 0= 1

2+ 2

(2+ 2) ⇒ 0= 2 + 20

2+ 2 ⇒ 20+ 20= 2 + 20

20+ 20− 20= 2 ⇒ (2+ 2− 2)0= 2 ⇒ 0= 2

2+ 2− 2

52.=  ⇒  ln  =  ln  ⇒  ·1

+ (ln ) · 0=  ·1

 · 0+ ln  ⇒ 0ln  −

0= ln  −

 ⇒

0= ln  − 

ln  − 

° 2016 Cengage Learning. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied, or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.c

62. Show that lim

n→∞ 1 + xnn

= exfor any x > 0.

Solution:

SECTION 3.7 RATES OF CHANGE IN THE NATURAL AND SOCIAL SCIENCES ¤ 231 53.  () = ln( − 1) ⇒ 0() = 1

( − 1) = ( − 1)−1 ⇒ 00() = −( − 1)−2 ⇒ 000() = 2( − 1)−3

(4)() = −2 · 3( − 1)−4 ⇒ · · · ⇒ ()() = (−1)−1· 2 · 3 · 4 · · · ( − 1)( − 1)−= (−1)−1( − 1)!

( − 1) 54.  = 8ln , so 9 = 80= 8(87ln  + 7). But the eighth derivative of 7is 0, so we now have

8(87ln ) = 7(8 · 76ln  + 86) = 7(8 · 76ln ) = 6(8 · 7 · 65ln ) = · · · = (8! 0ln ) = 8!

55. If () = ln (1 + ), then 0() = 1

1 + , so 0(0) = 1.

Thus, lim

→0

ln(1 + )

 = lim

→0

 ()

 = lim

→0

 () − (0)

 − 0 = 0(0) = 1.

56. Let  = . Then  = , and as  → ∞,  → ∞.

Therefore, lim

→∞

 1 +

= lim

→∞

 1 + 1



=

lim→∞

 1 + 1

= by Equation 6.

3.7 Rates of Change in the Natural and Social Sciences

1. (a)  = () = 3− 82+ 24(in meters) ⇒ () = 0() = 32− 16 + 24 (in ms) (b) (1) = 3(1)2− 16(1) + 24 = 11 ms

(c) The particle is at rest when () = 0. 32− 16 + 24 = 0 ⇒ −(−16) ±

(−16)2− 4(3)(24)

2(3) =16 ±√

−32

6 .

The negative discriminant indicates that  is never 0 and that the particle never rests.

(d) From parts (b) and (c), we see that ()  0 for all , so the particle is always moving in the positive direction.

(e) The total distance traveled during the first 6 seconds (since the particle doesn’t change direction) is

 (6) − (0) = 72 − 0 = 72 m.

(f )

(g) () = 32− 16 + 24 ⇒

() = 0() = 6 − 16 (in (ms)s or ms2).

(1) = 6(1) − 16 = −10 ms2

(h)

(i) The particle is speeding up when  and  have the same sign.  is always positive and  is positive when 6 − 16  0 ⇒

  83, so the particle is speeding up when  83. It is slowing down when  and  have opposite signs; that is, when 0 ≤   83.

2. (a)  = () = 9

2+ 9 (in meters) ⇒ () = 0() = (2+ 9)(9) − 9(2)

(2+ 9)2 = −92+ 81

(2+ 9)2 = −9(2− 9)

(2+ 9)2 (in ms) (b) (1) = −9(1 − 9)

(1 + 9)2 = 72

100 = 072 ms

° 2016 Cengage Learning. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied, or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.c

82. (a) One way of defining sec−1x is to say that y = sec−1x ⇔ sec y = x and 0 ≤ y < π/2 or π ≤ y < 3π/2. Show that, with this definition

d

dx(sec−1x) = 1 x√

x2− 1

(b) Another way of defining sec−1x that is sometimes used is to say that y = sec−1x ⇔ sec y = x and 0 ≤ y ≤ π, y 6= π/2. Show that, with this definition,

d

dx(sec−1x) = 1

|x|√ x2− 1 Solution:

SECTION 3.6 DERIVATIVES OF LOGARITHMIC AND INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS ¤ 247 80. () = arctan(2− ) ⇒ 0() = 1

1 + (2− )2 · 

(2− ) = 2 − 1 1 + (2− )2

Note that 0= 0where the graph of  has a horizontal tangent. Also note that 0is negative when  is decreasing and 0is positive when  is increasing.

81.Let  = cos−1. Then cos  =  and 0 ≤  ≤  ⇒ − sin 

 = 1 ⇒



 = − 1

sin  = − 1

1 − cos2 = − 1

√1 − 2. [Note that sin  ≥ 0 for 0 ≤  ≤ .]

82. (a) Let  = sec−1. Then sec  =  and  ∈ 02

∪

32 . Differentiate with respect to : sec  tan 





= 1 ⇒



 = 1

sec  tan  = 1 sec 

sec2 − 1 = 1

√

2− 1. Note that tan2 = sec2 − 1 ⇒ tan  =

sec2 − 1

since tan   0 when 0    2 or     32 .

(b)  = sec−1 ⇒ sec  =  ⇒ sec  tan 

= 1 ⇒ 

 = 1

sec  tan . Now tan2 = sec2 − 1 = 2− 1, so tan  = ±√

2− 1. For  ∈ 02

,  ≥ 1, so sec  =  = || and tan  ≥ 0 ⇒



 = 1

√

2− 1= 1

||√

2− 1. For  ∈

2 

,  ≤ −1, so || = − and tan  = −√

2− 1 ⇒



 = 1

sec  tan  = 1



−√

2− 1 = 1 (−)√

2− 1= 1

||√

2− 1.

83.If  = −1(), then () = . Differentiating implicitly with respect to  and remembering that  is a function of ,

we get 0()

 = 1, so 

 = 1

0() ⇒ 

−10

() = 1

0(−1()).

84. (4) = 5 ⇒ −1(5) = 4. By Exercise 83,

−10

(5) = 1

0(−1(5))= 1

0(4)= 1 23=3

2.

85. () =  +  ⇒ 0() = 1 + . Observe that (0) = 1, so that −1(1) = 0. By Exercise 83, we have (−1)0(1) = 1

0(−1(1))= 1

0(0)= 1

1 + 0 = 1 1 + 1= 1

2.

86. () = 3+ 3 sin  + 2 cos  ⇒ 0() = 32+ 3 cos  − 2 sin . Observe that (0) = 2, so that −1(2) = 0.

By Exercise 83, we have (−1)0(2) = 1

0(−1(2))= 1

0(0)= 1

3(0)2+ 3 cos 0 − 2 sin 0 = 1 3(1) =1

3.

° 2021 Cengage Learning. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied, or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.c

83. Derivatives of Inverse Functions Suppose that f is a one-to-one differentiable function and its inverse function f−1 is also differentiable. Use implicit differentiation to show that

(f−1)0(x) = 1 f0(f−1(x)) provided that the denominator is not 0.

Solution:

SECTION 3.6 DERIVATIVES OF LOGARITHMIC AND INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS ¤ 247 80.  () = arctan(2− ) ⇒ 0() = 1

1 + (2− )2 · 

(2− ) = 2 − 1 1 + (2− )2

Note that 0= 0where the graph of  has a horizontal tangent. Also note that 0is negative when  is decreasing and 0is positive when  is increasing.

81. Let  = cos−1. Then cos  =  and 0 ≤  ≤  ⇒ − sin 

 = 1 ⇒



= − 1

sin  = − 1

1 − cos2 = − 1

√1 − 2. [Note that sin  ≥ 0 for 0 ≤  ≤ .]

82. (a) Let  = sec−1. Then sec  =  and  ∈ 02

∪

32 . Differentiate with respect to : sec  tan 





= 1 ⇒



= 1

sec  tan  = 1 sec 

sec2 − 1 = 1

√

2− 1. Note that tan2 = sec2 − 1 ⇒ tan  =

sec2 − 1

since tan   0 when 0   2 or    32 .

(b)  = sec−1 ⇒ sec  =  ⇒ sec  tan 

 = 1 ⇒ 

= 1

sec  tan . Now tan2 = sec2 − 1 = 2− 1, so tan  = ±√

2− 1. For  ∈ 02

,  ≥ 1, so sec  =  = || and tan  ≥ 0 ⇒



 = 1

√

2− 1 = 1

||√

2− 1. For  ∈ 2 

,  ≤ −1, so || = − and tan  = −√

2− 1 ⇒



= 1

sec  tan  = 1



−√

2− 1 = 1 (−)√

2− 1= 1

||√

2− 1.

83. If  = −1(), then () = . Differentiating implicitly with respect to  and remembering that  is a function of ,

we get 0()

 = 1, so

= 1

0() ⇒ 

−10

() = 1

0(−1()).

84.  (4) = 5 ⇒ −1(5) = 4. By Exercise 83,

−10

(5) = 1

0(−1(5)) = 1

0(4) = 1 23= 3

2.

85.  () =  +  ⇒ 0() = 1 + . Observe that (0) = 1, so that −1(1) = 0. By Exercise 83, we have (−1)0(1) = 1

0(−1(1)) = 1

0(0) = 1

1 + 0 = 1 1 + 1=1

2.

86.  () = 3+ 3 sin  + 2 cos  ⇒ 0() = 32+ 3 cos  − 2 sin . Observe that (0) = 2, so that −1(2) = 0.

By Exercise 83, we have (−1)0(2) = 1

0(−1(2)) = 1

0(0) = 1

3(0)2+ 3 cos 0 − 2 sin 0 = 1 3(1)= 1

3.

° 2021 Cengage Learning. All Rights Reserved. May not be scanned, copied, or duplicated, or posted to a publicly accessible website, in whole or in part.c

1

(2)

85. Use the formula in Exercise 83.

If f (x) = x + ex, find (f−1)0(1).

Solution:

SECTION 3.6 DERIVATIVES OF LOGARITHMIC AND INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS ¤ 247 80. () = arctan(2− ) ⇒ 0() = 1

1 + (2− )2 · 

(2− ) = 2 − 1 1 + (2− )2

Note that 0= 0where the graph of  has a horizontal tangent. Also note that 0is negative when  is decreasing and 0is positive when  is increasing.

81.Let  = cos−1. Then cos  =  and 0 ≤  ≤  ⇒ − sin 

 = 1 ⇒



 = − 1

sin  = − 1

1 − cos2 = − 1

√1 − 2. [Note that sin  ≥ 0 for 0 ≤  ≤ .]

82. (a) Let  = sec−1. Then sec  =  and  ∈ 02

∪

32

. Differentiate with respect to : sec  tan 





= 1 ⇒



 = 1

sec  tan  = 1 sec 

sec2 − 1 = 1

√

2− 1. Note that tan2 = sec2 − 1 ⇒ tan  =

sec2 − 1

since tan   0 when 0    2 or     32 .

(b)  = sec−1 ⇒ sec  =  ⇒ sec  tan 

= 1 ⇒ 

 = 1

sec  tan . Now tan2 = sec2 − 1 = 2− 1, so tan  = ±√

2− 1. For  ∈ 02

,  ≥ 1, so sec  =  = || and tan  ≥ 0 ⇒



 = 1

√

2− 1= 1

||√

2− 1. For  ∈

2 

,  ≤ −1, so || = − and tan  = −√

2− 1 ⇒



 = 1

sec  tan  = 1



−√

2− 1 = 1 (−)√

2− 1= 1

||√

2− 1.

83.If  = −1(), then () = . Differentiating implicitly with respect to  and remembering that  is a function of ,

we get 0()

 = 1, so

 = 1

0() ⇒ 

−10() = 1

0(−1()).

84. (4) = 5 ⇒ −1(5) = 4. By Exercise 83,

−10

(5) = 1

0(−1(5))= 1

0(4)= 1 23=3

2.

85. () =  +  ⇒ 0() = 1 + . Observe that (0) = 1, so that −1(1) = 0. By Exercise 83, we have (−1)0(1) = 1

0(−1(1))= 1

0(0)= 1

1 + 0 = 1 1 + 1= 1

2.

86. () = 3+ 3 sin  + 2 cos  ⇒ 0() = 32+ 3 cos  − 2 sin . Observe that (0) = 2, so that −1(2) = 0.

By Exercise 83, we have (−1)0(2) = 1

0(−1(2))= 1

0(0)= 1

3(0)2+ 3 cos 0 − 2 sin 0 = 1 3(1)=1

3.

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