高雄醫學大學 104 學年度學士後醫學系招生考試試題
科目：英文 考試時間：80 分鐘
說明:一、「選擇題」用2B鉛筆在「答案卡」上作答，修正時應以橡皮擦擦拭，不得使用
修正液（帶）
，未遵照正確作答方法而致電腦無法判讀者，考生自行負責。
二、
「非選擇題」部分以「答案卷」作答，作答時不得使用鉛筆，違者該科答案卷
不予計分；限用黑色或藍色墨水的筆書寫。
三、試題、答案卡及答案卷必須繳回，不得攜出試場。
I. Vocabulary: 20 points 【單選題】每題 1 分，共 20 題，答錯 1 題倒扣 0.25 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦不扣分。A. Please choose the best answer to match with each underlined word.
1. Video has played a huge role in relationships between citizens and the police over the last 25 years. It has helped hold the police accountable for abuse and also protected them from false allegations.
(A) accusatory (B) innocent (C) explicable (D) resentful (E) psychopathic 2. The U.S. Armed Forces are stepping up surveillance of disputed islands in the South China Sea amid rising tension with
Beijing.
(A) slack (B) cessation (C) discontinuance (D) termination (E) observation 3. The hallucinogenic potion made from yahay vine can cause intoxication.
(A) supercilious (B) genetic (C) imprudent (D) psychoactive (E) addictive 4. Laser surgery for near-sightedness obviates the need for wearing glasses.
(A) precipitates (B) precludes (C) precedes (D) predicates (E) preordains 5. The Chinese armed forces have been strengthening their air and naval combat capabilities in the region, as U.S. forces
expanding their involvement in contention over the islands.
(A) amity (B) disagreement (C) cordiality (D) discussion (E) accord
B. Please choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
6. Being accused of discriminating against Asian-American applicants, Harvard University responded that the school's admission policies are fully ______ with the law.
(A) compliant (B) complaint (C) compliment (D) complementary (E) complement 7. A four-year ______ that sampled microbes from across the world’s oceans is bringing the mechanisms of climate change
into focus.
(A) exploitation (B) exemplification (C) exploding (D) expansion (E) expedition 8. A batch of sodium chloride manufactured by Y F Chemical Corp. was ______ with bacteria, resulting in fevers for eight
patients after they were injected with the solution.
(A) purified (B) disinfected (C) obstructed (D) confined (E) tainted 9. Resettling refugees is a global ______ obligation. Many of these countries, including the United States, have taken in
refugees from that part of the world over the last several years.
(A) hostile (B) humanitarian (C) antagonistic (D) oblivious (E) indifferent 10. The rich and famous can have as hard a time protecting their money as everyone else. Most people, unfortunately, are
______ to spend more than they have.
(A) immune (B) resistant (C) insensitive (D) predisposed (E) insusceptible 11. While WHO is confident that Liberia has interrupted transmission of Ebola, outbreaks persist in neighboring Guinea and
Sierra Leone, creating a high risk that infected people may cross into Liberia over the region’s exceptionally ______ borders.
(A) impermeable (B) tight (C) overpassing (D) porous (E) inapproachable 12. Two years ago, Muslim militias, known as the Seleka, seized power, then plundered the country from precious—diamonds,
gold and ivory to mundane—guns, cars and food. A group of mainly Christian and animist militias later ______, and drove the Seleka into the countryside.
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13. Women’s confinement to their home and dependence on personal servants for their every need left them powerless and ______ to their husbands and other males in the family.
(A) numb (B) exclusive (C) risky (D) reluctant (E) subservient
14. Business schools, responding to demand by students and employers for more global exposure, have started ______ international programs into their curricula in the last decade or so.
(A) intimidating (B) alternating (C) recruiting (D) incorporating (E) juxtaposing 15. The fireworks were in perfect ______ with the music.
(A) synchronization (B) endurance (C) enumeration (D) vitalization (E) resurgence 16. The ______ in relations between the U.S. and Cuba has led to a stunning 36 percent increase in visits by Americans to the
island.
(A) thaw (B) tension (C) conflict (D) attack (E) transaction
17. Floodwaters deepened across much of Texas as storms dumped almost 30 centimeters of rain on the Houston area, stranding hundreds of motorists and ______ the famously congested highways.
(A) invigorating (B) illuminating (C) inundating (D) disseminating (E) facilitating 18. One of the predicted consequences of global warming is the rising sea levels. This salty seawater will ______ low-lying
streams, rivers and underground freshwater aquifers—the sources of drinking water for millions of people worldwide. (A) infiltrate (B) outbreak (C) summarize (D) undertake (E) overcome 19. Head delegations from the countries are now at the negotiation tables in the first round of ______ talks, the results of
which are hoped to be the beginning of improved relations between the two nations.
(A) bicameral (B) bifocal (C) binomial (D) bilateral (E) bipedal 20. It is statistically proven that after a person’s early 20’s, the fascination with ______ declines, and his/her resistance to
change increases.
(A) magnificence (B) novelty (C) replicas (D) commodity (E) amusement
II. Grammar and Structure: 20 points
【單選題】每題 1 分，共 20 題，答錯 1 題倒扣 0.25 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦不扣分。
A. Please choose the best answer to complete each sentence.
21. Developing a strategy that your company or military cannot execute, ______ wonderful, is simply bad strategy.
(A) regardless (B) no matter (C) no matter how (D) regardless of (E) no matter whether 22. Jony Ive, ______ with designing many of Apple's most successful products, has been promoted to be chief design officer.
(A) credits (B) crediting (C) is crediting (D) credited (E) has credited 23. ______ a global nuclear war, life on earth as we know it would end forever.
(A) There should be (B) If there will be (C) If there had been (D) Should there be (E) Had there been 24. ______ the catastrophic flooding of New Orleans was caused not merely by a powerful storm but primarily by fatal
engineering flaws in the city’s flood protection system has been proved by experts.
(A) This (B) That (C) While (D) However (E) Which
25. Hospitals are competing for a decreasing market share; ______, they are attempting to discover the most cost-effective and highest quality care.
(A) however (B) on the whole (C) in other words (D) for example (E) consequently 26. “If not us, who is going to take care of the ______ Christians in Iraq, being one of the longest Christian communities ever
in existence?” JebBush said during a speech in Oklahoma City.
(A) persecuting (B) persecuted (C) being persecuted (D) having persecuted (E) persecution 27. Scientific discoveries often happen unintentionally. In the early 20th century, Alexander Fleming noticed that the mold
growing on one of the culture plates in his lab was killing all of the bacteria, ______ him to discover antibiotics.
(A) had lead (B) was leading (C) lead (D) leading (E) have lead
28. Joey Alexander, whose parents are Christians, ______ his unique talent as being “a gift from God.”
(A) distributes (B) attributing (C) commits (D) committing (E) attributes 29. When a patient is near death, a doctor should not be obliged to embark upon or continue heroic treatment ______ has no
prospect of benefiting the patient.
(A) in which (B) from which (C) which (D) whom (E) for whom
30. Sting, a supporter for humanitarian and environmental causes, established the Rainforest Foundation, an organization, ______. (A) whose goal is to help save the world’s rainforests (B) who goal is to help save the world’s rainforests (C) that goal is to help save the world’s rainforests (D) which goal is help save the world’s rainforests (E) whatever goal is to help save the world’s rainforests
31. Ethnocentrism is the view that one’s own culture is better than all others. People will always find some aspect of another culture distasteful, ______ sexual practices, a way of treating friends or relatives, or simply a food that they cannot manage to get down with a smile.
(A) be it (B) owing to (C) whereas (D) yet (E) unless
32. She will not say what the item is, claiming that she won't divulge the secret of a valuable or important item to people she does not know and can ______ be expected to trust.
(A) hardly (B) merely (C) simply (D) almost (E) easily
B. For each sentence, please choose one underlined part that contains faulty English.
33. During the “dot-com” bubble in the United States which has lasted from the mid-1990s to 2001, many companies, A
to increase market share, purposely sold products at a loss, a scheme they believed would increase the B C D
company’s customer base and lead to future profits.
E
34. The truth is, Geraldine, that in your case as an undergraduate student, you are not studying adequate enough, and you may A B C
find yourself in an awkward predicament sometime soon in the near future. D E
35. The fact is that still we do not know why some people become addicts and others do not although there are many theories A
that reason that some people simply have an “addictive personality type”, being far more susceptible to the reward B C
mechanism that produces addiction while others still believe that it is the addicts’ lack of will power to refrain without D E taking drugs or alcohol.
36. In Antarctica, a massive wall that for years was an obstacle to whale watchers receded in 2010 to reveal a shallow channel A B C D
full of feeding humpbacks. E
37. Comparing its competitors in the energy space, the renewable energy industry is young. The biggest renewable energy A B
employers, solar PV (1.6 million jobs) and wind (356,000), blow away the number of people employed in either of those C D
industries in any other country, by multiples. E
38. When asking to conserve water, many people were disappointed that the government did not set a similar mandate for age. A B C Before the order, the state had already turned off the tap for many farmers. And now it’s making further cuts.
D E
39. Neither another penny will we spend on your education unless your grades improve and you become responsible for your A B C D E work.
40. Facebook has had internal question-and-answer sessions whose employees can pose questions to CEO Mark Zuckerberg A B C
on topics ranging from the social media site itself to the direction of the company. D E
III. Reading Comprehension: 30 points
【單選題】每題 2 分，共 15 題，答錯 1 題倒扣 0.5 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦不扣分。
Please read the following chart/excerpts/passages closely and then choose the best answer for each of the questions according to the contents.
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Medicom (sales in thousands)
41. According to the chart, in which period did the sales plummet most dramatically?
(A) January ~ February (B) April ~ May (C) June ~ July
(D) September ~ October (E) October ~ November
For many people, certain fiction books have a special meaning. A story that a person read when they were young, for example, can make them nostalgic for their childhood. But why should people read them? To people who enjoy reading fiction books may simply find them irresistible. On the contrary, people who are not interested in fiction may find it monotonous and boring, or they feel the formal language of literature is unintelligible. Many people prefer reading nonfiction or the news because the language is more straightforward and easier to understand. However, some researchers believe they have found definitive proof that reading fiction is actually beneficial for the human brain. A research team at the University of Toronto led by Professor Maja Kjikic, for example, found that people who read literary fiction become more open-minded and creative in their thinking, and are also better able to deal with uncertainty.
42. People who do not appreciate fiction think ______.
(A) fiction reading is illegible and literature language is humdrum
(B) fiction reading is humdrum and literature language is incomprehensible (C) both fiction reading and literature language are difficult
(D) neither fiction reading or literature language is critical
(E) fiction reading is incomprehensible and literature language is humdrum 43. Based on the researches, people who enjoy reading fiction might ______.
(A) deal carefully with abstract task
(B) develop a mind of better tolerance and work effectively under ambiguity (C) monitor carefully about uncertainty
(D) think critically before taking action
(E) read decisively to avoid disastrous consequences
Distinguishing between which kind of stress we feel can sometimes be tricky. Stress is sometimes meant to benefit us, but this does not always happen. Some students find that the stress from taking tests enhances their performance, while others find that test taking makes them forget everything they know. Psychologists note that the type of stress we feel is also tied to the kind of personality we have – Type A or Type B. People with Type A personality frequently feel distress. They tend to be very competitive and often labeled “workaholics” because they devote so much time and energy to their work in order to ensure their success. Unfortunately, focusing much on work and deadlines can make them feel excessive amount of distress. Because they are naturally more impatient and uptight, the distress Type A people feel comes predominantly from themselves. People of Type B are exact opposite: more relaxed and easygoing. Instead of being upset when sitting in traffic jam, people of Type B would not let the situation control how he or she feels. They find it easier to adapt to change. They are able to deal with stress in a more positive and effective way, which results in their experiencing more eustress than distress.
44. Which is the best title for the essay above?
(A) Personality and Stress: Classification and Correlation (B) Personality and Stress: Performance and Enhancement (C) Personality and Stress: Distress and Eustress
(D) The Influence of Personality on Stress (E) Personality: Typology
45. Based on the reading above, which of the following statement is correct? (A) Stress is always beneficial to us.
(B) Type B people tend to devote time and energy to their work.
(C) The stress Type A people experience results mainly from themselves. (D) People of Type B often have difficulty in adapting to uncertainty.
(E) Type B people tend to think negatively, which results in their experiencing constant distress.
Millie is a petite woman who looks younger than her 57 years, but she has a failing heart. Even the smallest amount of physical exertion causes shortness of breath and other symptoms such as arm pain, so her cardiologists brought in the
(47) care team.
The team was asked to help manage Millie’s pain and other symptoms and to help her grapple with the knowledge that her heart was losing its ability to pump strongly enough. They were also asked to help her with decision-making.
Millie could go home on her intravenous medication, but neither her son nor her daughter was going to be able to accommodate her needs. This is a common scenario in today’s families, so the medical care team had to move to plan B – a nursing home. But no nursing home could be found that would accept a patient on this type of medication. What came next? Next, was plan C – living in the hospital.
Millie is now living in the hospital and receiving her medications. With Plan C in operation, the palliative care team has continued to help Millie feel as comfortable as possible and experience the best possible quality of life. This included providing the services of a massage therapist and transforming her hospital room with a beach motif so Millie could feel the freedom that the sea and sand always gave her. With the help of palliative care even her appetite improved! One day Millie said, “I would love some grilled salmon and rice. And if you can find some sugar-free ice cream, that would just be delightful.”
46. What is the major problem that Millie suffers from?
(A) being rejected by her family (B) heart failure (C) bad appetite (D) heavily relying on sugar (E) compelled to live by the sea
47. What is the most appropriate word for the blank in the first paragraph?
(A) palliative (B) emergency (C) chronic (D) rehabilitative (E) acute 48. What is the major improvement achieved by the medical team?
(A) recovery from the illnesses (B) sustaining her life quality
(C) improving her living environment (D) her union with her family
(E) discharging her from nursing home
49. What is the synonym of the word exertion in the first paragraph?
(A) overdose (B) stretch (C) experience (D) extension (E) activity
More than 3 million years ago, when “Lucy” was roaming the savannah of present-day Ethiopia, she may have encountered other two-legged apes not unlike her own species, Australopithecus afarensis—yet still just a wee bit strange.
Represented by jawbones from three individuals, a newly described species named Australopithecus deyrimeda adds to the scatter of evidence that not one, but a range of hominin species populated the East African landscape before 3 million years ago. This could imply they were able to carve out separate niches in a stable environment based on differences in diet, foraging strategies and other behaviors.
“We don't know enough yet to say anything about the nature of interaction or ecological differences between A. afarensis and A. deyiremeda,” says Stephanie Melillo of the Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology. “We have to first know how to tell the two species apart from their fossil remains, and that is what this paper was all about.”
Reported Wednesday in Nature, the new specimens—a partial upper jaw, two lower jaws, and some other
fragments—were found at Burtele, in the Afar Triangle of Ethiopia, just a day’s walk from Hadar, where Lucy was found in 1974. Sediments surrounding the bones were dated to 3.3 and 3.5 million years ago, a time when A. afarensis is well known to have inhabited the region. While the new jaws share some characteristics with Lucy’s species, they differ in other respects. Some of the teeth have different root structures, and in general are smaller than A. afarensis teeth, a trait that could indicate a shift in diet.
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“Smaller teeth are often associated with a more meaty diet,” says Fred Spoor of University College London and the Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology. “And the chewing muscles have migrated forward, which suggests a
redistribution of chewing forces of some sort.”
The species name, A. deyrimeda, derives from the local words for “close” (deyi) and “relative” (remeda)—signaling the species close relationship with other hominins. But the similarities only go so far.
“We are convinced that it is different from A. afarensis. All of the evidence—published and unpublished—that we have from the localities at Burtele support our conclusion,” says study author Yohannes Haile-Selassie of the Cleveland Museum of Natural History. He notes that folding the new specimens into A. afarensis would introduce an extremely unusual amount of physical variation into the existing species.
Still, “the distinctions are very, very subtle,” says paleoanthropologist Bill Kimbel of the Institute of Human Origins. “I think the authors have done a very nice job in analyzing the material, but I think it’s a judgment call as to whether you think the differences amount to a species-level difference.”
A. afarensis remains by far the most conspicuous hominin in the fossil record of East Africa 3 to 4 million years ago, during a period known as the Middle Pliocene. But in the last two decades, scientists have named several others, including Australopithecus bahrelghazali from Chad, and Kenyanthropus platyops from Kenya. A. deyrimeda further swells the crowd.
“There is now incontrovertible evidence to show that multiple hominins existed contemporaneously in eastern Africa during the Middle Pliocene,” the authors write.
Of special interest are some enigmatic foot bones of a hominin recovered in 2009 very close to where A. deyiremeda was unearthed. The bones suggest a creature with a flexible foot and big toe capable of grasping objects, similar to a more primitive hominin called Ardipithecus ramidus, dated to 4.4 million years ago.
But perplexingly, the foot bones at Burtele date back to just 3.4 million years ago: the same time period as A. deyiremeda. It’s a combination of proximity in both space and time that cannot be ignored, Kimbel says.
“Figuring out whether or not that very primitive foot is the same critter as the clear australopithecine teeth and jaws that are being described now is of utmost importance,” Kimbel says. “It would mean that you could have australopithecus-like heads with more diverse options for locomotion – which is not a picture we have painted so far.”
50. How many hominins reside in the eastern African before 3 million years ago?
(A) one (B) two (C) more than two
(D) none (E) The answer is still controvertible.
51. The name given to the newly discovered species is ______. (A) Australopithecus afarensis
(B) Australopithecus deyrimeda (C) Australopithecus bahrelghazali (D) Kenyanthropus platyops (E) Ardipithecus ramidus
52. According to the article, the newly discovered species might ingest more ______ than Lucy’s species.
(A) water (B) salt (C) fruit (D) vegetable (E) meat
53. The word, deyrimeda, derives from the local words for “close” (deyi) and “relative” (remeda). Therefore, deyrimeda is a word made by ______.
(A) compounding (B) abbreviating (C) blending
(D) coining (E) assimilating
54. In the ninth paragraph, the word “conspicuous” may be replaced by______.
(A) noticeable (B) intelligent (C) prosperous (D) ferocious (E) sentimental 55. Australopithecus is more like ______.
(A) monkeys (B) apes (C) ape-men (D) humans (E) aliens
IV. Essay Writing: 20 points
Please write a well-organized essay with at least 200 words to express your opinion on medical malpractice.
“Statistics show that approximately 195,000 people are killed every year by medical errors in the US. Between 15,000 and 19,000 malpractice suits are brought against doctors each year.” Are there efficient and practical ways to reduce the rate of medical error? Should doctors be solely responsible for their errors? What sort of legal protection should doctors be entitled to?
高雄醫學大學
104 學年度學士後醫學系招生考試試題
科目:有機化學 考試時間: 80 分鐘
說明:一、選擇題用 2B 鉛筆在「答案卡」上作答，修正時應以橡皮擦擦拭，不得使用修
正液(帶)，未遵照正確作答方法而致電腦無法判讀者，考生自行負責。
二、試題及答案卡必須繳回，不得攜出試場。
Choose one best answer for the following questions
【單選題】每題 1 分，共計 60 分，答錯 1 題倒扣 0.25 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦不扣分。 1. Which of the following reagent(s) could be used to oxidize primary alcohol to aldehyde?
I. Pyridium chlorochromate (PCC) II. 1. (COCl)2, DMSO; 2. Et3N III. Dess-Martin periodinane
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) I and II (E) All of the above
2. What is the coupling constant (J value) between Ha and Hb in the following compound?
(A) 0~5 Hz (B) 6~12 Hz (C) 11~18 Hz (D) 20~25 Hz (E) None of the above
3. Which of the following structures is chiral?
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I and IV (E) III and IV 4. Which of the following carbonyl compounds has the largest equilibrium constant for the addition of water?
(A) CH3CH O (B) (C) CCl3CH O (D) OCH (E)
5. The Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction involves:
(A) the α-bromination of carboxylic acids (B) the α-bromination of ketones (C) the bromination of alcohols (D) the oxidation of aldehydes to acids (E) None of the above
6. Which compound has the lowest pKa?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
7. What is the major product, when 0.10 mol of ICH2CH2CH2CH2Cl reacts with 0.10 mol of NaOCH3 in CH3OH at 40 C ?
(A) CH3OCH2CH2CH2CH2Cl (B) CH3OCH2CH2CH2CH2I (C) CH3OCH2CH2CH2CH2OCH3
(D) CH2=CHCH2CH2Cl (E) CH2=CHCH2CH2I
8. Which of the following is a meso compound?
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) I and IV (D) II and III (E) I, IV and V 9. Which cycloalkane has the lowest heat of combustion per CH2 group?
(A) Cyclopropane (B) Cyclobutane (C) Cyclopentane (D) Cyclohexane (E) Cycloheptane 10. How many alkanes of formula C7H16 possess a quaternary carbon atom?
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11. The graph below is a plot of the relative energies of the various conformations, please predict the expected item?
0o 60o 120o 180o 240o 300o 360o R el at iv e en er gy Angle of rotation
(A) 2-Chloropropane (B) 1,3-Dichloropropane (C) 2-Methylpropane
(D) Butane (C1-C2 rotation) (E) Butane (C2-C3 rotation)
12. Chorismate mutase is an enzyme that catalyzes a pericyclic reaction that forms prephenate. What kind of a pericyclic reaction does chorismate mutase catalyze?
(A) an ene reaction (B) an electrocyclic reaction (C) a sigmatropic rearrangement (D) a cycloaddition reaction (E) None of the above
13. The C7 compound which gives 3 signals in the broadband proton-decoupled 13C spectrum could be:
(A) Heptane (B) 2-Methylhexane (C) 3,3-Dimethylpentane
(D) 2,4-Dimethylpentane (E) 2,2,3-Trimethylbutane 14. Select the structure of a compound C6H14 with a base peak at m/z 43.
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 (B) (CH3CH2)2CHCH3 (C) (CH3)3CCH2CH3
(D) (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2 (E) None of the above
15. What is the correct assignment of the names of the functional groups in the following nitrogen-containing compounds?
(A) I = amide II = amine III = oxime (B) I = imine II = oxime III = hydrazone (C) I = amine II = oxime III = hydrazine (D) I = imine II = hydrazone III = amine (E) I = hydrazine II = hydrazone III = oxime
16. Which sequence ranks the following carbonyl compounds in order of increasing rate of nucleophilic addition?
O N H H N O O 1 2 3 (A) 2 < 3 < 1 (B) 3 < 2 < 1 (C) 2 < 1 < 3 (D) 1 < 3 < 2 (E) 1 < 2 < 3 17. When H2NCH2CH2CH2CH2COCH3 is heated in the process of an acid catalyst, a reaction occurs. The major product is:
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
18. p-Methoxybenzaldehyde can be prepared from anisole using the Gatterman-Koch formylation. What mixture of reagents is necessary for this process?
(A) CO, HCl, AlCl3, CuCl (B) CO, SO3, H2SO4 (C) CO2, HCl, AlCl3
(D) CO2, SO3, H2SO4 (E) CO2, HNO3, H2SO4
19. Which of the following carbonyl compounds may be made from 1,3-dithiane?
I. Methyl vinyl ketone II. 2-Pentanone III. 3,3-Dimethyl-2-butanone IV. 2-Phenylethanal
(A) I and IV (B) II only (C) II and III (D) II and IV (E) III and IV 20. Predict the compound from the spectral data given. C9H10O2: 13C NMR, δ 18.06 (quartet), 45.40 (doublet), 127.32 (doublet),
127.55 (doublet), 128.61 (doublet), 139.70 (singlet), 180.98 (singlet); IR, broad 3500-2800, 1708 cm-1
(A) 3-Phenylproponic acid (B) 2-Phenylproponic acid (C) 2-(4-Methylphenyl)acetic acid (D) 2-(3-Methylphenyl)acetic acid (E) 2-(2-Methylphenyl)acetic acid
21. Which of the following pairs of structures are not resonance forms of the same compounds? (A) H3C C O O H3C C O O and (B) (C) (D) and OH O (E) and H3C C O H3C C O C H CH2 C H CH2
22. Which of the following Newman projection represents the most stable trans-1,2-dimethylcyclohexane?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
23. Which of the following structure represents (S)-L-alanine?
(A)
CO2H
H2N
CH3
H (B) (C) (D) (E)
24. Which of the following description(s) is(are) true for the following reaction?
I: the solution of the products is optically active II: the products have stereocenters
III: the products are meso compounds IV: the products are racemic mixture V: the reaction is enantioselective
(A) V only (B) I and II (C) III and IV (D) II and V (E) II and IV
25. Disulfide linkages in proteins come from between:
(A) two methionine residues (B) two cysteine residues
(C) a cysteine residue and a methionine residue (D) a threonine residue and a cysteine residue (E) a methionine residue and a threonine residue
26. Which of the following represents the HOMO for the conjugated system in Leukotriene B4?
CO2H
OH OH
Leukotriene B4
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
27. Which of the following is the most stable conformation for cis-4-methyl-2-pentene?
(A) H (B) (C)
(D) (E) All of the above
28. Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?
(A) CO2H OH (B) CO2H OCH3 (C) CO2H OH (D) (E) CO2H OH
29. Which compound would undergo SNAr reaction most rapidly with sodium methoxide?
(A) Cl (B)
N
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30. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) O H (B) O O (C)
(D) (E) None of the above
31. Provide the structure of the missing starting material to complete the reaction.
(A) O Ph (B) O Ph (C) (D) (E) O Ph
32. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) NH2
HO OH
33. Provide the structure of the missing starting material to complete the reaction.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
34. If one gauche interaction is 0.9 kcal/mol, what is the energy difference between cis-decalin and trans-decalin?
(A) 0.9 kcal/mol (B) 1.8 kcal/mol (C) 2.7 kcal/mol (D) 3.6 kcal/mol (E) 4.5 kcal/mol 35. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) (C)
36. Which is the major product of the following reaction? (A) O O O (B) (C) O O O (D) O O O (E) O O O
37. Provide the reagents to accomplish the synthesis shown below.
(A) 1. Br2, FeBr3 2. Mg, THF 3. ethylene oxide, then H3O
(B) 1. KMnO4, HO 2. EtMgBr, ether 3. H3O
(C) 1. Br2, FeBr3 2. Mg, THF 3. CO2, then H3O
(D) 1. Br2, hv 2. NaCN 3. H3O , heat
(E) 1. Br2, hv 2. Mg, THF 3. CH3CHO, then H3O
38. Which is the major product of the following reaction sequence?
2. NaIO4 PPh3 Ph Br + n-BuLi THF ? 1. OsO4, H2O2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) O O
39. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E) O
OCH3
I
40. The following products were obtained from the oxidative cleavage of a diene. What is the structure of the diene?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
41. Which of the following reactions would give a tertiary alcohol as a product?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
42. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
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43. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) Ot-Bu H H D H (B) D (C) H (D) D H (E)
44. How to convert bromocyclohexane to trans-cyclohexane-1,2-diol?
(A) 1. H2SO4, heat 2. MCPBA, then H3O (B) 1. H2SO4, heat 2. KMnO4, HO
(C) 1. NaOCH3 2. O3 then Me2S (D) 1. t-BuOK 2. MCPBA, then H3O
(E) 1. NaOCH3 2. H2, Pd/C
45. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) I and IV (E) II and IV 46. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true for the following reaction?
I. This reaction shows high (Z)-alkene selectivity.
II. When n-BuLi and Et2O were used as the base and solvent, the selectivity decreases.
III. This reaction is under kinetic-controlled.
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) I and III (E) All of the above
47. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
48. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
49. Which of the following synthetic procedures would be employed most effectively to transform ethanol into ethyl propyl ether? (A) 1. Ethanol, HBr 2. Mg, ether, then H3O 3. NaH, then CH3CH2Br
(B) 1. Ethanol, HBr 2. Mg, ether, then HCHO, then H3O 3. NaH, then CH3CH2Br
(C) 1. Ethanol 2. CH3CH2CH2OH 3. H2SO4, 140 C
(D) 1. Ethanol, NaH 2. HCHO, then H3O 3. HBr, then Mg, ether, then CH3CH2CH2Br
50. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
51. Which is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
52. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
53. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) OH (C) (D) OH (E)
54. Which reagent is most suitable for the following transformation?
(A) CuF (B) F-TEDA-BF4 (C) AgSbF6 (D) HBF4 (E) n-Bu4NF
55. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) None of the above
56. What is the major product of the following reaction?
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57. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A)
(B) (C) (D) (E) None of the above
58. Which of the following reactions is most likely to give optically active products?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E)
59. What reagent(s) can be used for the following transformation?
I. KMnO4 II. SeO2 III. Br2, DMSO IV. NaOCl, H2O
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) II and III
60. What reagent(s) can be used for the following transformation?
I. OsO4 II. CH3CO3H, H2O III. I2, CH3CO2Ag, CH3CO2Ag, H2O
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) I and II (E) I and III
【單選題】每題 2 分，共計 40 分，答錯 1 題倒扣 0.5 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦不扣分。 61. What sequence of reagents is needed to convert t-butylbenzene into 1-bromo-2-(t-butyl)benzene?
I. Dilute H2SO4, heat II. NaNO2, HCl III. Br2, FeBr3, heat IV. Fuming H2SO4, heat V. HBr, CuBr, heat
(A) IV → II → V (B) I → III → II (C) II → III → V (D) III → V → I (E) IV → III → I 62. Determine the most likely structure for a compound (C6H10O) which is found to decolorize bromine in carbon tetrachloride. Its
spectral data is as follows:
1H-NMR IR
triplet, 1.0 singlet, 2.4 2200 cm-1 (sharp) singlet, 1.4 singlet, 3.4 3300 cm-1 (sharp)
quartet, 1.6 3500 cm-1 (broad)
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
63. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) O OH (C) OH (D) (E)
64. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B)
H OCH3
Et H
65. What is the major product of the following reactions? (A) O O O (B) (C) O O O (D) (E)
66. What is the major product of the following reactions?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
67. Which reaction sequence is required to accomplish the following transformation?
(A) 1. LiAlH4 2. H3O 3. NaH, then CH3I
(B) 1. H2NNH2, KOH, 120 C 2. H2, Pd/C 3. NaH, then CH3I
(C) 1. HOCH2CH2OH, H3O 2. LiAlH4 3. NaH, then CH3I, then H3O
(D) 1. HOCH2CH2OH, H3O 2. H2NNH2, KOH, 120 C 3. H2, Pd/C, H3O
(E) 1. NaNH2, CH3I 2. LiAlH4 3. H2, Pd/C, H3O
68. Which reaction sequence is required to accomplish the following transformation?
O
O
?
I. heat II. NaOH, heat, then HCl, H2O III. NaOH IV. CH3COCH2CO2Et, EtONa
(A) I → II → III → IV (B) IV → II → I → III (C) III → VI → II → I (D) II → IV → III → I (E) None of the above
69. Which one of the following reactions would give the product as it is planned?
(A) (B) O O 1. Mg, ether 2. CH2=O O O Br 3. H3O HO (C) (D) (E)
70. What is the major product of the following reaction?
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71. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV (E) V
72. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) N CO2Me H CO2Me (C) N CO2Me H MeO2C (D) N CO2Me H MeO2C
(E) None of the above
73. Which of the following series of synthetic steps could be used to carry out the transformation shown below?
I. H2, Pt/C II. B2H6 III. NaNO2, H3O IV. CH3NO2, KOH V. H2O2, NaOH VI. PCC
(A) I → II → V (B) IV → I → III (C) III → VI → V
(D) II → V → III (E) None of the above 74. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) (C)
(D) (E) None of the above
75. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) N O OEt CN NC (B) (C) N OH CN
76. What is the major product of the following reaction? Br O KOH ? (A) OH O (B) O (C) O
(D) (E) None of the above
77. How to prepare aspirin from phenol?
(A) 1. NaOH, CO2 2. H3O 3. Ac2O
(B) 1. CH3COCl, AlCl3 2. NaNO2, then H3PO2 3. H3O
(C) 1. Ac2O 2. H3O 3. NaOH, CO2
(D) 1. HNO3, H2SO4 2. Fe, HCl 3. CH3COCl, AlCl3
(E) 1. Ac2O 2. NaOH 3. CO2, then H3O
78. What is the major product of the following reaction?
(A) (B) H H (C) H H (D) H H NCH3 (E)
79. 7-Dehydrocholesterol, a steroid found in skin, is converted into vitamin D3 by two pericyclic reactions. What are these two
reactions?
(A) 1. an electrocyclic reaction 2. an ene reaction
(B) 1. a [1,7] sigmatropic rearrangement 2. an electrocyclic reaction
(C) 1. an electrocyclic reaction 2. a [1,7] sigmatropic rearrangement (D) 1. an ene reaction 2. an electrocyclic reaction
(E) 1. an ene reaction 2. a [1,7] sigmatropic rearrangement 80. What is the major product of the following reaction?
OH H O O OAc 1. NOCl 2. h 3. hydrolysis ? (A) O O OH O (B) (C)
(D) (E) None of the above
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高雄醫學大學
104 學年度學士後醫學系招生考試試題
科目：普通生物學 考試時間：80 分鐘
說明：一、選擇題用
2B 鉛筆在「答案卡」上作答，修正時應以橡皮擦擦拭，不得使用
修正液(帶)，未遵照正確作答方法而致電腦無法判讀者，考生自行負責。
二、試題及答案卡必須繳回，不得攜出試場。
I.【單選題】1-60 題，每題 1 分，共計 60 分。答錯 1 題倒扣 0.25 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦 不扣分。1. Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large, complex, undigested lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?
(A) mitochondrion (B) lysosome (C) endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Golgi apparatus (E) ribosome
2. Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in development. What mechanism could allow this?
(A) pseudogene activation (B) exon shuffling
(C) differential translation of mRNAs (D) differential gene regulation over time (E) natural selection
3. Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many generations to see changes, with the exception of ______.
(A) colonization (B) sexual selection (C) reinforcement (D) natural selection (E) polyploidy
4. Leaf thickness represents a trade-off between ______. (A) water retention and carbon dioxide absorption (B) light collection and carbon dioxide absorption (C) water retention and oxygen absorption
(D) light collection and oxygen absorption (E) light collection and water retention
5. What is the only type of chemical signal that does not alter the physiology of the animal producing that signal?
(A) paracrine (B) pheromones (C) neuroendocrine
(D) neural (E) none of above
6. Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic population growth? (A) competition for resources (B) favorable climatic conditions (C) decreased death rate
(D) removal of predators (E) increased birth rate 7. Matter is gained or lost in ecosystems. How does this occur?
(A) Heterotrophs convert heat to energy.
(B) Photosynthetic organisms convert solar energy to sugars. (C) Chemoautotrophic organisms can convert matter to energy. (D) Matter can be moved from one ecosystem to another. (E) Detrivores convert matter to energy.
8. Which of the following provides the best evidence of a biodiversity crisis? (A) the incursion of a non-native species
(B) climate change
(C) increasing pollution levels (D) decrease in regional productivity (E) high rate of extinction
9. An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of the squirrels. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during the earthquake?
(A) disruptive selection (B) a genetic bottleneck (C) directional selection (D) a founder event (E) stabilizing selection
10. If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents?
(A) It has double the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
(B) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell. (C) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
(D) It is identical in content to another cell formed from the same meiosis I event. (E) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
11. Jams, jellies, preserves, honey, and other foods with high sugar content hardly ever become contaminated by bacteria, even when the food containers are left open at room temperature. This is because bacteria that encounter such an environment ______.
(A) are unable to swim through these thick and viscous materials (B) undergo death as a result of water loss from the cell
(C) are unable to metabolize the glucose or fructose, and thus starve to death (D) are obligate anaerobes
(E) are unable to reproduce then die eventually 12. Sympatric species ______.
(A) are more likely than allopatric species to display character displacement (B) always show character displacement
(C) are less likely than allopatric species to display character displacement (D) are unlikely to be competing
(E) are more likely than allopatric species to display character displacement and likely to be competing 13. The veins of leaves are ______.
I) composed of xylem and phloem
II) continuous with vascular bundles in the stem and roots
III) finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cell
(A) only I (B) only II (C) only III
(D) I and II (E) I, II, and III 14. To be useful to plants soil nitrogen must usually occur as:
(A) N2 and NH3 (B) NH3 and NO3- (C) NO3- and N2
(D) N2 and NO2 (E) NO2 and NO3
-15. What major benefits do plants and mycorrhizal fungi receive from their symbiotic relationship? (A) Fungi receive photosynthetic products in exchange for living in plant root nodules.
(B) Plants receive nitrogen and phosphorus, and fungi receive photosynthetic products. (C) Plants receive enzymes, and fungi receive nitrogen and phosphorus.
(D) Plants receive increased root surface area, and fungi receive digestive enzymes. (E) All of the above are false.
16. Which of the following statements about vitamins is FALSE?
(A) Thiamine is a coenzyme in removing CO2 and relates to Beriberi.
(B) Folic acid is a component of coenzyme A and relates to birth defect. (C) Ascorbic acid is a coenzyme in collagen synthesis and relates to scurvy. (D) Retinol is a component of visual pigments and relates to blindness. (E) Tocopherol is an antioxidant and relates to nervous system degeneration.
17. Pollen from a plant with the S1S2 genotype is recognized and allowed to germinate on the stigma of the same plant with the S1S2 genotype. According to the S-system hypothesis, this indicates that the plant is ______.
(A) self-incompatible and must cross-pollinate (B) self-incompatible and can self-pollinate (C) self-compatible and must cross-pollinate (D) self-compatible and can self-pollinate
(E) self-compatible and can self-pollinate or cross-pollinate
18. DNA methylation and histone acetylation are examples of ______.
(A) genetic mutation (B) epigenetic phenomena (C) translocation (D) chromosomal rearrangements (E) gene degradation
19. Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? (A) Denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; anneal primers; add dNTPs; extend primers.
(B) Anneal primers; denature DNA; extend primers. (C) Denature DNA; anneal primers; extend primers. (D) Extend primers; anneal primers; denature DNA. (E) Add dNTPs; add fresh enzyme; denature DNA.
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20. Which of the following definition is WRONG for molecular clock? (A) Paralogous genes are used.
(B) Constant mutation rate is supposed.
(C) Fossil record can be used to correct dating. (D) Based on Neutral theory.
(E) The rate of molecular change should be regular like a clock.
21. If organisms a, b, and c belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms c, d, and e belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
(A) a and d (B) b and c (C) b and d
(D) d and e (E) a and e
22. Which of the following plants has a dominant sporophyte generation and a seed, but no fruit?
(A) fern (B) pine tree (C) tulip
(D) lycophyte (E) moss
23. Which of the following statements about renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is FALSE? (A) Sensors in juxtaglomerular apparatus (JAG) detect decrease in pressure.
(B) JAG releases renin with decreased pressure.
(C) Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I. (D) Angiotensin II stimulates the kidney to release aldosterone.
(E) Aldosterone increases blood volume by Na+ and water reabsorption.
24. A biologist doing a long-term study on a wild spider population observes increased variation in silk thickness. Which of the following could the spider population be experiencing?
(A) directional selection (B) genetic drift (C) disruptive selection (D) stabilizing selection (E) founder effect
25. Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the embryos stop developing after a day and then die. These two frog species separate by ______.
(A) gametic isolation (B) reduced hybrid fertility (C) hybrid breakdown (D) mechanical isolation (E) reduced hybrid viability
26. Which of the following characteristics tends to limit bryophytes and seedless vascular plants to habitats that are relatively moist?
(A) absence of cuticle
(B) presence of flagellated sperm
(C) presence of free-living, independent zygotes and early embryos (D) presence of lignified vascular tissues
(E) presence of seeds and pollen
27. There are several stages about alternation of generations of ferns. Which order is TRUE? (1) gametophyte, (2) sporophyte, (3) spores, (4) archegonia, (5) gametes.
(A) 32541 (B) 23145 (C) 32451
(D) 23541 (E) 32145
28. Compare with Monocots and Eudicots, which of the following statements is FALSE? (A) A seed of Monocots has one cotyledon; that of Eudicots has two.
(B) Leaf vein of Monocots is usually parallel, but that of Eudicots is usually netlike.
(C) Vascular tissue of stems in Monocots is scattered, but that of Eudicots is usually arranged in ring. (D) Pollen grain of Monocots has one opening; that of Eudicots has three openings.
(E) Floral organs usually in multiple of four in Monocots, but three in Eudicots. 29. Which structure is found in angiosperms but NOT gymnosperms?
(A) fruit (B) spores (C) seeds
(D) ovule (E) a tube that grows from the pollen to deliver sperm 30. The heterokaryotic phase of a fungal life cycle is ______.
(A) a stage in which the hyphae contain only one type of haploid nucleus (B) a stage in which hyphae contain two, genetically different, haploid nuclei (C) a stage in which hyphae contain two, genetically different, diploid nuclei
(D) a stage that is diploid but functions as a gametophyte (like the body of an animal)
31. Exercise and emergency reactions include ______.
(A) decreased activity in the sympathetic, and increased activity in the parasympathetic divisions (B) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system
(C) increased activity in the sympathetic, and decreased activity in the parasympathetic divisions (D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system
(E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure
32. Which of the following is an example of a commensalism? (A) fungi residing in plant roots, such as endomycorrhizae
(B) rancher ants that protect aphids in exchange for sugar-rich honeydew (C) bacteria fixing nitrogen in plants
(D) insects pollinate flowers
(E) cattle egrets eating insects stirred up by grazing bison 33. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
(A) water vapor (B) molecular oxygen (C) molecular nitrogen
(D) argon (E) carbon monoxide
34. In the figure below, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries?
(A) curve A (B) curve B (C) curve C
(D) curve D (E) curve E
35. _____ is formed in ______ during embryonic development. Which of the following statements is FALSE? (A) Dorsal lip, frog (B) Primitive streak, sea urchin (C) Primitive streak, chick (D) Epiblast, chick (E) Epiblast, human
36. Which of the following statements about fruit fly is FALSE? (A) Spermatheca can be used to store sperm in male fly.
(B) Defective expression of Hox genes suppresses the embryonic development. (C) The courtship behaviors include orienting, tapping and singing.
(D) Toll receptor leads to synthesis of antimicrobial peptides against fungi. (E) Drosophila melanogaster has a diploid number of 8.
37. Which insect is classified incorrectly?
(A) mosquitoes - Diptera (B) butterflies - Lepidoptera (C) bees - Lepidoptera (D) flies - Diptera (E) grasshoppers - Orthoptera
38. Which of the following statements about the reproductive cycles of human female is FALSE? (A) Low level of estradiol inhibits the secretion of pituitary gonadotropins.
(B) High level of estradiol stimulates the secretion of pituitary gonadotropins.
(C) High level of estradiol and progesterone stimulates the secretion of pituitary gonadotropins. (D) High level of LH (luteinizing hormone) stimulates ovulation.
(E) High level of estradiol and progesterone stimulates the maintenance of endometrium. 39. Which of the following statements about the extracellular matrix (ECM) is FALSE?
(A) Collagens are assembled into triple helix in the ER lumen.
(B) Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) contain positively charged carbohydrates. (C) Chondroitin sulfate is a GAG to be part of proteoglycan.
(D) Elastin is a protein capable of changing conformation. (E) Fibronectin can directly bind with integrin.
40. Which of the following statements about the RNA processing is FALSE?
(A) Not all of the nucleotides in the mature mRNA can be translated into proteins. (B) Spliceosomes are composed of proteins and snRNAs.
(C) Modified guanosine is required for the capping of pre-mRNA. (D) Methylation is required for the capping of pre-mRNA.
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41. Which of the following statements about cell junctions is FALSE? (A) Actin filaments anchor desmosomes in the cytoplasm.
(B) Hemidesmosomes connect cells to extracellular matrix (ECM) via integrins. (C) Integrin is a transmembrane protein with two nonidentical subunits.
(D) Cadherins are Ca2+-dependent molecules to create cell-to-cell junctions. (E) The connexons of gap junctions allow the passage of ions.
42. Which of the following statements about blood tissue is FALSE?
(A) The mature red blood cells contain nucleus in frog but not in human. (B) Eosinophils with bilobed-nucleus can kill parasites.
(C) Lymphocytes with multilobed-nucleus are the most abundant leukocytes. (D) Monocytes are phagocytes and develop into macrophages.
(E) Basophiles secret anticlotting factor called heparin at the site of injury. 43. Which of the following statements about gene cloning is FALSE?
(A) DNA with specific palindromic sequence can be cut by restriction enzymes. (B) EcoRI, a restriction enzyme from E. coli, cut DNA into sticky ends.
(C) Gene of interest can be linked into plasmid with DNA polymerase. (D) The plasmids are transformed into competent cells.
(E) Ions such as CaCl2 affect whether or not a bacterium will be competent cells.
44. Which of the following statements about neurotransmitter is FALSE?
(A) Dopamine is derived from tyrosine and released by ventral tegmental area (VTA) neuron. (B) Epinephrine derived from tryptophan is important for fight-or-flight reactions.
(C) Serotonin derived from tryptophan affect sleep and mood. (D) Endorphin is a neuropeptide to mediate pain perception. (E) Substance P is a neuropeptide to mediate pain perception. 45. Which of the following statements about drugs is FALSE?
(A) Taxol inhibits cancer cells by preventing microtubule depolymerization. (B) Tamoxifen inhibits cancer cells by blocking the function of estrogen receptor. (C) RU486 induces abortion by blocking the function of estrogen receptor. (D) Erythromycin inhibits the growth of bacteria by blocking their ribosomes. (E) Chloramphenicol inhibits the growth of bacteria by blocking their ribosomes. 46. Which of the following sugars contain ketone group?
(A) glyceraldehyde (B) ribose (C) glucose
(D) fructose (E) galactose
47. Which of the following proteins have quaternary structure?
I. Methionine II. Lysozyme III. Collagen IV. Hemoglobin
(A) I and II (B) III and IV (C) I, II, and IV (D) II, III, and IV (E) II and III 48. Endomembrane system includes following organelles, except ______.
(A) nuclear envelope (B) endoplasmic reticulum (ER) (C) Golgi apparatus
(D) mitochondria (E) lysosome
49. Which of following is NOT a second messenger in signal transduction?
(A) proton (B) cAMP (C) Ca2+
(D) inositol triphosphate (IP3) (E) diacylglycerol (DAG)
50. All of the enzymes catalyze reactions to produce NADH , FADH2 or ATP in citric acid cycle, except ______.
(A) isocitrate dehydrogenase (B) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (C) succinyl-CoA synthetase (D) succinate dehydrogenase (E) citrate synthetase
51. Which of the following molecule does NOT participate in oxidative phosphorylation?
(A) proton (B) Ca2+ (C) ubiquinone (Q)
(D) cytochrome c (cyt c) (E) ADP 52. Which of the following statements about cell cycle is FALSE?
(A) Cyclin is degraded during G1.
(B) Synthesis of cyclin begins in S phase.
(C) Cyclin combines with Cdk to produce maturation-promoting factor (MPF). (D) MPF promotes mitosis by phosphorylating various proteins.
53. Which of the following statements about inherited disorders is FALSE?
(A) Cystic fibrosis, a recessive disease, is caused by the defect of Cl- transporter. (B) Tay-Sachs disease, a dominate disease, is caused by the defect in mitochondria.
(C) Phenylketonuria, a recessive disease, is caused by inability to metabolized phenylalanine. (D) Huntingon’s disease, a dominate disease, is a neuron degenerative disease.
(E) Sickle-cell disease caused by T to A substitution results in defect of hemoglobin. 54. Which of the following statements about bacterial replication fork is FALSE?
(A) Helicase breaks and unwinds parental DNA. (B) Primase synthesizes DNA primers.
(C) DNA polymerase III synthesizes leading strand. (D) DNA polymerase I removes the primers.
(E) DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments.
55. Which of the following statements about the molecules of appetite regulation is FALSE? (A) Hormone ghrelin is secreted by stomach to trigger feelings of hunger.
(B) Hormone insulin is secreted by pancreas to suppress appetite by brain. (C) Hormone leptin is secreted by adipose to suppress appetite.
(D) Hormone PYY is secreted by small intestine to suppress appetite. (E) Hormone syndecan is secreted by hypothalamus to trigger appetite. 56. What is the order of the control of heart rhythm?
1. Signals are delayed at AV node. 2. Bundle branches pass signals to heart apex. 3. Signals from SA node spread. 4. Signals spread throughout ventricles.
(A) 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 (B) 4 → 1 → 3 → 2 (C) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
(D) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 (E) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1 57. What is the order of the nephron?
1. Thick segment of ascending limb. 2. Distal tubule. 3. Descending limb. 4. Glomerulus. 5. Thin segment of ascending limb. 6. Collecting duct. 7. Proximal tubule.
(A) 4 → 2 → 3 → 5 → 1 → 7 → 6 (B) 4 → 7 → 3 → 5 → 1 → 2 → 6 (C) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 5 → 7 → 6 (D) 4 → 7 → 5 → 1 → 3 → 2 → 6 (E) 4 → 2 → 7 → 1 → 5 → 3 → 6
58. Which of the following statements about the regulation of skeletal muscle contraction is FALSE? (A) Acetylcholine releases and triggers an action potential in muscle fiber.
(B) Action potential is propagated along plasma membrane and down T tubules. (C) Action potential triggers Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).
(D) Ca2+ bind to tropomyosin and release myosin-binding sites to initiate muscle contraction.
(E) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a disease of muscle fibers atrophy caused by motor neuron degeneration. 59. Which of the following statements about skeleton is FALSE?
(A) Nematodes use hydrostatic skeleton to move. (B) The exoskeletons of insect contain chitin. (C) The osteoblasts are bone-building cells. (D) The osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells.
(E) The joint between the head of ulna and the humerus is a pivot joint. 60. Which of the following statements about plant hormones is FALSE?
(A) Auxin (IAA) is produced by shoot apical meristems to stimulate stem elongation. (B) Cytokinins are synthesized in roots to regulate cell division.
(C) Gibberellins (GA) are produced by meristems of apical buds to stimulate pollen development. (D) Ethylene can be produced by most parts of the plant to promote ripening of fruits.
(E) Jasmonates are derived from cartenoid regulate floral development.
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Ⅱ 【單選題】61-80 題，每題 2 分，共計 40 分。答錯 1 題倒扣 0.5 分，倒扣至本大題零分為止，未作答，不給分亦 不扣分。
61. Which of the following statements about eukaryotic transcription is FALSE? (A) Transcription factors bind on the TATA box of promoters.
(B) RNA polymerase II unwinds the double strand DNA and synthesis mRNAs. (C) MyoD is a transcription factor committing cells into skeletal muscle.
(D) The direct binding of enhancer with the promoter increases the rate of gene expression. (E) The start point is the nucleotide where RNA synthesis actually begins.
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62. Which of the following statements about protist is FALSE?
(A) Entamoeba histolytica moves by pseudopodia and causes intestinal illness. (B) Trypanosoma moves by flagella and causes sleeping sickness.
(C) Plasmodium moves by cilia and causes malaria.
(D) Paramecium moves by cilia and the genetic variation results from conjugation. (E) Trichomonas moves by flagella and causes sexually transmitted disease.
63. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) The hilum was observed in the starch grains of potato under microscope. (B) The liver cells of pig may contain more than one nucleus.
(C) The shape of pigment cells in the fish scale is irregular. (D) The fat cells stained by Sudan dye turned into blue color.
(E) The composition of crystals in the plants can be CaCO3 or Calcium oxalate.
64. Which of the following statements about RNA interference (RNAi) is FALSE?
(A) MicroRNAs (miRNAs) or short-interfering RNAs (siRNAs) interfere with the proper expression of mRNAs. (B) Single-stranded pre-siRNA is cut by dicer and release typically 22bp RNA.
(C) Single-stranded siRNA associates with RISC protein and bind to target mRNA.
(D) High complementarity of siRNA and target mRNA result in mRNA degradation or translation inhibition. (E) Low complementarity of siRNA and target mRNA result in mRNA degradation or translation inhibition.
65. Which of the following coding region of a mRNA can encode a peptide and end at stop codon? (A) 5’ ACGAUAAACUGAUCUAUUAG 3’
(B) 5’ CACAUAUGAAAGACACCCUAA 3’ (C) 5’ AAUAGCCAGUAGGCCGCUAG 3’ (D) 5’ ACUUAGCGAACUCCACAAUG 3’ (E) 5’ GGGACAUGCCCAGAUGACAC 3’
66. A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these explanations best explains what happened?
(A) The herbicide company lost its triazine formula and started selling poor-quality triazine. (B) Triazine-resistant pigweed has less-efficient photosynthesis metabolism.
(C) Natural selection caused the pigweed to mutate, creating a new triazine-resistant species. (D) Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce.
(E) Disruptive selection caused the pigweed to produce a new triazine-resistant species.
67. You enjoy learning about history by traveling throughout North America studying gravestones. You notice that gravestones from 1900 and earlier usually host many types of lichens. But in one cemetery, lichens are entirely absent, even from old gravestones. Given what is known about lichens, the cemetery without lichens probably ______.
(A) has an unusually dry climate
(B) is subject to extremely cold winter temperatures
(C) gets a great deal of rain, which favors the growth of competing bacteria (D) has a high population of fungi that parasitize lichens
(E) is close to a source of air pollution
68. The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include ______. I. creating crops that can grow on land previously unsuitable for agriculture
II. creating crops with better potential for biofuel production III. creating crops with better nutritional attributes
IV. increasing crop yield
V. decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes
(A) III, IV, and V (B) II, III, and IV (C) I, II, and III (D) I, II, III, and IV (E) I, II, III, IV, and V
69. Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following? (A) purple and long (B) purple and oval (C) red and long
70. What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
I. Transform bacteria with a recombinant DNA molecule.
II. Cut the plasmid DNA using restriction enzymes (endonucleases). III. Extract plasmid DNA from bacterial cells.
IV. Hydrogen-bond the plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA fragments. V. Use ligase to seal plasmid DNA to nonplasmid DNA.
(A) III, II, IV, V, I (B) IV, V, I, II, III (C) II, III, V, IV, I (D) III, IV, V, I, II (E) III, I, IV, V, II
71. The following table compares the % sequence homology of four different parts (two introns and two exons) of a gene that is found in five different eukaryotic species. The data reported for species A were obtained by comparing DNA from one member of species A to another member of species A.
Species Intron I Exon I Intron VI Exon V
A 100% 100% 100% 100%
B 99% 98% 82% 96%
C 99% 98% 89% 96%
D 99% 98% 92% 97%
E 99% 98% 80% 94%
Which of these four gene parts should allow the construction of the most accurate phylogenetic tree, assuming that this is the only part of the gene that has acted as a reliable molecular clock?
(A) Exon I (B) Exon V (C) Intron I
(D) Intron VI (E) Both Exon I and V
72. The tails of UCSD campus male dark-eyed juncos were, on average, 36% white, whereas the tails of male juncos from the original colonizing population averaged 40-45% white. If this observed trait difference were due to a difference in the original colonizing population, it would most likely be due to ______.
(A) a genetic bottleneck (B) a founder effect (C) gene flow between populations (D) mutations in the UCSD population (E) stabilizing selection
73. The phenomenon of fusion is likely to occur when, after a period of geographic isolation, two populations meet again and ______.
(A) an increasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of the next one hundred generations (B) an increasing number of infertile hybrids is produced over the course of the next one hundred generations (C) no reproduction occurs in the hybrid zone
(D) a decreasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of the next one hundred generations (E) fewer and fewer hybridization occurs
74. If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed from the community, the remaining species would be expected to ______.
(A) become the target of specialized parasites (B) expand its realized niche
(C) change its fundamental niche (D) decline in abundance
(E) unchange
75. Which of the following statements about bacterial gene regulation is FALSE? (A) Tryptophan binds to activate repressor of trp operon.
(B) Allolactose is an inducer of lac operon.
(C) The product of lac I is the repressor of lac operon. (D) Inactive repressor turns the repressible operon off.
(E) Catabolite activator protein (CAP) is activated by cAMP in lac operon.
76. Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). The morphological similarities of these two species must therefore be due to ______.
(A) inheritance of acquired characteristics (B) sexual selection
(C) inheritance of shared derived characters (D) convergent evolution
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77. Which of the following statements about the scientists and their contributions to the discovery of DNA as a genetic material as well as DNA's structure and function is NOT CORRECT?
(A) Frederick Griffith's study on two strains of Streptococus pneumonia led to the discovery that DNA is a genetic material.
(B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase's studies of the virus that infects bacteria provided experimental evidence that DNA, but not protein, is the genetic material of virus.
(C) Erwin Chargaff reported that the base composition of DNA varies between species, providing additional evidence that DNA is a genetic material.
(D) Rosalind Franklin produced the first X-ray diffraction image of DNA. (E) James Watson and Francis Crick built the first double-helix model of DNA. 78. Which description about “innate immunity” is NOT CORRECT?
(A) Innate immunity is found in all animals.
(B) The great success of insects in habitats teeming with diverse microbes highlights the effectiveness of invertebrate innate immunity.
(C) Innate immune responses are distinct for different classes of pathogens.
(D) Recognition and response in innate immunity of mammalian occur with tremendous specificity.
(E) Each mammalian Toll-like receptor binds to fragments of molecules characteristic of a set of pathogens. 79. Which peptide can form disulfide bond and has high absorbance at 280 nm?
(A) APYNIK (B) KCMHYS (C) QWLTFS
(D) RVAGEF (E) CTHGPH 80. Which of the following statements about virus is FALSE?
(A) Papillomavirus is double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) virus that causes warts. (B) Poxvirus is dsDNA virus that causes smallpox.
(C) Coronavirus is single-stranded RNA (ssRNA) virus that causes SARS. (D) Filovirus is ssRNA virus that causes Ebola.
後醫-英文 題號 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 答案 C E D B B A E E B D D C E D A A C A D B 題號 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 答案 C D D B E B D E C A A A A C E B A A A B 題號 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 答案 A B B A C B A B E C B E A A C 後醫-有機化學 題號 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 答案 E C A C A D A C D C E C D D B A A A D B 題號 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 答案 D A E E B D B C B C E C B C E E E C C D 題號 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 答案 C A B D A E E C B E D B C B B A B D E E 題號 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 答案 E C B D E E C B A D B A B A C D A C C D 後醫-普通生物學 題號 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 答案 B D E A B A D E B C B A E B B B D B C A 題號 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 答案 D B D C E B B E A B C E A A B A C C B E 題號 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 答案 A C C B C D B D A E B E B B E C B D E E 題號 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 答案 D C D B E D E D A A D B A B A D A D B E
